1. ATOMIC STRUCTURE - II
En = 313.6/n2, If the value of Ei = -34.84 to which value ‘n’ corresponds ____
a. 4 b.3 c. 2 d.1 (b)
Dual character of an electron was explained by ___________
a. Bohr b. Heisenberg c. de-Broglie d.Pauli (c)
De-Broglie equation is ___________
a. l= mv / h b. l = hmv c. l = hv / m d. l = h/ mv (d)
The value of Bohr radius for hydrogen atom is ____________
a. 0.529 x 10-8 cm b. 0.529 x 10-10 cm c. 0.529 x 10-6 cm d. 0.529 x 10-12 cm (a)
Which of the following particle having same kinetic energy, would have the maximum
de- Broglie wavelength__________
a. a particles b. proton c.b particles d. neutron (c)
If the energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of H – atom is E, what is the energy of the electron in the Bohr’s first orbit?
a. 2 E b. –4 E c. –2 E d. 4 E (b)
The energy of electron in an atom is given by En = __________
a. -4π2 me4 /n2 h2 b. -2π2 me2/n2 h2 c. -2π2 me4 /n2 h2 d. -2π me4 /n2 h2 (c)
The bond order of oxygen molecule is _________
a. 2.5 b. 1 c. 3 d. 2 (d)
The hybridization in SF6 molecule is ______________
a. sp3 b. sp3 d2 c. sp3 d d. sp3 d3 (b)
The intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in _____________
a. o – nitrophenol b. m – nitrophenol c. p – nitrophenol d. None (a)
The de-Broglie’s concept can be applied not only to __________ but also to other particles like neutrons, protons, atoms, molecules etc.
a. compounds b. electrons c. matter d. radioactive elements (b)
The _____________ orbital is symmetrical about Z – axis
a. d b. dxy c. dyz d. dz2 (d)
bond order = ____________
a. ½ (Nb – Na) b. ½ Nb c. Nb d Nb - Na (a)
The sidewise or lateral overlap of atomic orbitals give __________ bonds
a.pi b. chemical c. covalent d. sigma (a)
2. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION – II
The value of C – C distance found experimentally in a saturated hydrocarbon is ________
a. 1.34 A b. 1.36 A c. 1.54 A d. 1.56 A (c)
On moving down the group the radius of an ion ______________
a. decreases b. increases c. no change d. none of these (b)
Effective nuclear charge (Z*) can be calculated by using the formula _______
a. Z* = Z – S b. Z* = Z + S c. Z* = S – Z d. Z = Z* – S (a)
Pick the correct statement
a. carbon having more nuclear charge than boron
b. the size of carbon atom is larger than boron
c. carbon forms electron deficient compounds
d. carbon forms ionic compounds (a)
Comparing the ionization energy of fluorine with carbon, fluorine has ______
a. higher ionisation energy b. lower ionisation energy
c. same ionisation energy d. None of these (a)
Among the following which has the maximum ionization energy
a. alkali metals b. alkali elements c. halogens d. noble gases (d)
the electron affinity of an atom ___________
a. directly proportional to its size b. inversely proportional to its size
c. is independent of its size d. none of these (b)
Among the following which has higher electron affinity value _______
a. Fluorine b. Chlorine c. Bromine d. Iodine (b)
The scale which is based on empirical relation between the energy of a bond and the electro negativities of bonded atoms is _____________
a. Pauling method b.mulliken’s scale c. Sanderson’s scale d. Alfred & Rochow’s scale (a)
electron affinity is expressed in ______________
a. kJ b.J c. kJ mol d.kJ mol-1 (d)
The bond length of chlorine molecule is ___________
a. 0.74 b. 1.44 c. 1.98 d. 2.28 (c)
12.The order of ioinisation energy _________
a s. < p < d < f b. s > p > d > f c. s > d > p > f d. s < d < p < f (b)
13. Across the period electron affinity ____________
a. decreases b. increases c. decreases and then increases
d. increases and then decreases (b)
14. Noble gases have ____________ electron affinity
a. high b. low c. zero d. very low (c)
15. When XA >> XB then A – B bond is ___________
a. polar covalent b. non polar covalent c. ionic d. metallic (c)
16. Which one of the following elements has the highest value for electron affinity
a. oxygen b. fluorine c. aluminium d. lithium (b)
17. atomic radius ___________
a. inceases down the group b. decreases down the group
c. increases along the period d. is not a periodic property (a)
18.The unit of ionization potential is ___________
a. kJ b.kJ/kg c. J/ g d. kJ / mol (d)
19. The electronic configuration of copper is ____________
a. [Ar], 4s2,3d9 b. [Ar], 4s1,3d10 c. [Ar], 4s0,3d10 4p1 d. [Ar], 4s2,3d9 4p1 (b)
Which one of the following bonds is the strongest
a. H –F b. H – Cl c. H - Br d. H – I (a)
3. p – BLOCK ELEMENTS
Which of the following does not belong the group 13?
a. B b. Al c. Ge d. In (c)
Which of the following is most abundant in earth’s crust?
a. C b. Si c. Ge d. Sn (b)
The metalloid among the following is ____________
a. C b. P c. Ge d. Sn (c)
Which of the following does not exhibit allotropy?
a. C b. Si c. Sn d. Pb (d)
Which one of the following is a three dimensional silicate ?
a. talc b. beryl c. quartz d. kaoline (c)
Which one shows most pronounced inert pair effect?
a. Si b. Sn c. Pb d. C (c)
Which element is kept in water?
a. P b. Na c. S d.Si (a)
8. An element which was burnt in limited supply of air to give oxide A which on treatment with water gives an acid B, Acid B on heating gives acid C which gives yellow precipitate with AgNO3 solution A is ___________
a. So2 b. NO2 c. P2O3 d.SO3 (c)
9. The compound with garlic odour is ____________
a. P2 O3 b. P2 O5 c. H3 PO3 d. H3 PO4 (a)
The shape of PCl5 is ___________
a. pyramidal b. trigonal bipyramidal c. linear d. tetrahedral (b)
The member of chalcogen family which can exhibit the oxidation state of + 2 as well as – 2 is are
a. O2 only b. S only c. both O2 and S d. Se only (c)
Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur, yet H2S is acidic while H2O is neutral. This is because
a. H2O is a higly associated compound
b. H – S bond is weaker than H – O bond
c. H2s is a gas while H2O is a liquid
d. The molecular weight of H2S is more than that of water (b)
The compound used as smoke screen _________
a. PCl3 b. PCl5 c. PH3 d. H3 PO3 (c)
Oxygen exhibits positive oxidation
a. fluorine b. bromine c. chlorine d. iodine (a)
Which shows only – 1 oxidation state?
a. fluorine b. bromine c. chlorine d. iodine (a)
One can draw the map of building on a glass plate by _____________
a. HI b. HF c. HBr d. HCl (b)
Among the halogen acid, the weakest acid is _____________
a. HF b. HCl c. HBr d. HI (a)
Halogens belong to the group number____________
a. 14 b. 15 c. 17 d. 18 (c)
The noble gases are unreactive because they
a. have same number of electrons b. have an atomicity of one
c. are gases with low densities d. have stable electronic configuration (d)
The shape of XeF4 is _______________
a. tetrahedral b. octahedral c. square planar d. pyramidal (c)
Which is not known ?
a. XeF6 b. XeF4 c. XeO3 d. ArF6 (c)
The lightest gas which is non – inflammable is ____________
a. He b. H2 c. N2 d. Ar (a)
Which of the following has highest first ionization energy?
a. He b. Ne c. Ar d. Kr (a)
Aqueous solution of aluminum sulphate is ______________
a. acidic b.basic c. neutral d. amphoteric (a)
The formula of galena is _____________
a. PbS b. PbCO3 c. PbSO4 d. PbO (a)
White phosphorus is stored under _______________
a. kerosene b. water c. alcohol d. benzene (b)
The general electronic configuration of 17th group elements is ______
a.ns2, np2 b. ns2, np3 c. ns2, np4 d. ns2, np5 (d)
There are __________ types of interhalogen compounds .
a.two b. three c. four d. five (c)
P2O3 has ___________ odour
a. garlic b. rotten egg c. foul d. rotten fish (a)
4. d – BLOCK ELEMENTS
The general electronic configuration of d – block elements is
a. (n-1) d1 – 10 nsn – 2 b. (n – 1) d1 – 5 ns2 c.(n – 1)d0ns1 d. None of these (a)
Formation of coloured ions is possible when compounds contain
a. paired electrons b. unpaired electrons c. lone pairs of electrons d. none (b)
Paramagnetism is common in
a. p – block elements b. d – block elements c. s – block elements d. f – block elements (b)
The colour of Ti(H2O)63+ ion is due
a. d – d transistion b. Presenece of water molecules
c. Inter atomic transfer of electrons d. None of the above (a)
The electronic configuration of chromium is
a. 3d64s0 b. 3d54s1 c. 3d44s2 d. 3d64s24p1 (b)
Paramagnetism is the property of
a. paired electrons b. completely filled electronic subshells
c. unpaired electrons d. completely vacant electronic subshells (c)
d-block elements form coloured ions because
a. They absorb some energy for d –s transition
b. They absorb some energy for p – d transition
c. They absorb some energy for p – d transition
d. They do not absorb energy
The correct electronic configuration of copper atom is
a. 3d104s1 b. 3d104s2 c. 3d94s2 d. 3d54s24p4 (a)
Copper is extracted from
a. cuprite b. copper glance c. malachite d. copper pyrites (d)
Silver salt used in photography is
a. AgCl b. AgNO3 c. AgF d. AgBr (d)
Sodium thiosulphate is used in photography because of its
a. Oxidizing behaviour b. Reducing behaviour
c. complexing behaviour d. Photochemical behaviour (b)
Excess of sodium hydroxide reacts with zinc to form
a. Zn H2 b. Na2 ZnO2 c. ZnO d. Zn(OH)2 (b)
German silver is an alloy of copper and
a. Zn and Ni b. Al c. Zn d. Sn (a)
Which of the following compound will not give positive chromyl chloride test?
a.CuCl2 b. HgCl2 c. ZnCl2 d. C6H5Cl (d)
Which of the ions will give colourless aqueous solution?
a. Ni2+ b. Fe2+ c. Cu2+ d. Cu+ (d)
Which of the following compounds is not coloured?
a. Na2CuCl4 b. NaCdCl4 c.K4[Fe(CN)6] d.K3[Fe(CN)6] (b)
In the extraction of Cu, the reaction which takes place in the Bessemer converter is _________
a. 2CuFeS2 + O2 Cu2S + FeS + SO2 b. 2Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2
c. 2Cu2O + Cu2 S 6 Cu + SO2 d. 2FeS + 3 O2 2FeO + 2SO2 (a)
Select the correct statement
a. All cuprous salts are blue in colour b. Transition metals are highly reactive
c. All cuprous salts are white in colour d. Mercury is a liquid metal (d)
Choose the wrong statement regarding K2Cr2O7
a. It is a powerful oxidizing agent b. It is used in tanning industry
c. It is soluble in water d. It reduces ferric sulphate to ferrous sulphate (d)
For a transistion metal ioin, the effective magnetic moment in BM is given by the formula
a. ‡n(n – 1) b. ‡n(n + 1) c. ‡n(n + 2) d. ‡n(n + 1) (n +2) (c)
The correct statement is respect of d – block elements is
a. They are all metals b. They show variable valency
c. They form coloured ions and complex salts d. All above statements are correct (d)
Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate
a.Cu(CN)2 b. K2[Cu(CN)6] c. K[Cu(CN)2] d. Cu2(CN2) + (CN)2 (d)
Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
a. Mg2+ b. Ti3+ c. V3+ d. Fe2+ (d)
Among the following statement, the incorrect one is
a. Calamine and sidertie are carbonates b. Argentite and cuprite are oxides
c. Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides d. Malachite and azurite are ores of copper (b)
The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is
a. Cu2O + FeS b. FeSiO3 c. CuFeS2 d. Cu2S+ FeO (b)
The transition element with the lowest atomic number is
a. Scandium b. Titanium c. Zinc d. Lanthanum (a)
Which transition element show highest oxidation state ?
a. Sc b. Ti c. Os d. Zn (c)
Zirconium and Hafmium have almost equal atomic radii due to
a. lanthanide contraction b. actinide contraction c. same nuclear charge
d. shielding effect (a)
___________ compounds are used in dyeing a pigments and in tanning of leather
a.Chloreine b. Chromium c. Nickel d. Lead (b)
The chief ore of zinc is ____________
a. calamine b. Zincite c. Calomel d. Zinc blende (d)
____________ is a combination of gold with colloidal stannic acid
a. Spiegel b. Aqua regia c. purple of cassius d. Standpol (c)
5. f – BLOCK ELEMENTS
The electronic configuration of Lanthanides is _____________
a. [Xe]4f10, 5d0, 6s2 b. [Xe]4f1 - 7, 5d1, 6s1 c. [Xe]4f1 - 14, 5d1, 6s2
d. [Xe]4f1 - 14, 5d1 - 10, 6s2 (c)
The electronic configuration of Actinides is ______________
a. [Rn] 5f0 –14,6d0,7s0, b. [Rn] 5f0 –14,6d10 - 2,7s0 c. [Rn] 5f0 –14,6d10 - 2,7s1
d. [Rn] 5f0 –14,6d0-2,7s2 (d)
The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that _____________
a. Zn and Y have about the same radius b. Zr and Nb have similar oxidation stat
c. Zr and Hf have about the same radius d. Zr and Zn have same oxidation state (c)
4. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (At.No.64) is ____________
a. [Xe], 4f8, 5d9 , 6s2 b. [Xe], 4f7, 5d1 , 6s2
c. [Xe], 4f3, 5d5 , 6s2 d. [Xe], 4f6, 5d2 , 6s2 (b)
The most common oxidation state of lanthanides is __________
a. +2 b. +1 c. +3 d. +4 (c)
Lanthanides are extracted from ___________
a. Limonit b. Monazite c. Magnetite d. Cassitnite (b)
The elements in which the extra electron enters (n – 2) of orbitals are called _______
a. s – block elements b. p – block elements c. d– block elements d. f – block elements (d)
The Lanthanides contraction is due to _________
a. Perfect shielding of 4f electron b. Imperfect shielding of 4f electron
c. Perfect shielding of 3d electron d. Imperfect shielding of 3d electron (b)
9. Ceria is used in ___________
a. toys b. tracer bullets c. gas lamp materials d. none of the above (c)
10. _________ is used in gas lamp material
a. MnO2 b. CeO2 c.N2 O5 d. Fe2 O3 (b)
11.Alloys of Lanthanides are called as __________
a. Mish – metals b. metalloids c. plate metals d. Actinides (a)
Metaliothermioc processes involving lanthanides are called as _________
a. Aluminothermic process b. Lanthanido – thermic process
c. Reduction process d. oxidation process (b)
___________ form oxocations
a. Lanthanides b. Actinides
c. Noble gases d. Alkali metals (b)
Maximum oxidation state exhibited by Lanthanides is ____________
a. + 1 b. + 2 c. + 3 d. + 4 (d)
15. Lanthanides are separated by _____________
a. fractional distillation b. steam distillation c. fractional crystillisation d. sublimation (c)
16. Important ore of Lanthanide is _____________
a. Pitchblende b. Monozite c. Gypsum d. Chromite (b)
17.The 5f group elements are also called as ____________
a. rare earth metals b. actinides c. lanthanides d. inner transition elements (b)
18.The oxidation state exhibited by lanthanides other than + 3 are _______
a. + 2 and + 4 b.+ 1 c. + 2 d. + 4 (a)
19.The anhydrous fluorides and chlorides of rare earth elements are heated in an atmosphere ____________
a. carbon dioxide b.helium c. hydrogen d. argon (d)
20.The oxidation state shown by actinides other than + 4 state is __________
a. + 6 b. + 3 c. + 2 d. + 1 (a)
6. CO – ORDINATION COMPOUNDS AND BIO – COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
Which is a double salt?
a. K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O b. NaCl c. K4[Fe(CN)6] d.KCl (a)
An example of complex compound having coordination number 4.
a. K4[Fe(CN)6] b. [Co(en)3]Cl3 c. [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 d. [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 (d)
The geometry of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ complex ion
a. Linear b. Tetrahedral c. Square planar d. Angular (c)
An example of a chelating ligand is
a. NO2 b.chloro c. Bromo d. en (d)
The geometry of complex ion [Fen(CN)6]4-
a. Tetrahedral b. Square planar c. Octahedral d.Triangular (c)
The oxidation number of Nickel in the complex ion, [NiCl4]2- is
a. +1 b. –1 c. +2 d. –2 (c)
Which is not an anionic complex?
a. [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 b. K4[Fe(CN)6] c. K3[Fe(CN)6] d.[NiCl4]2- (a)
The geometry of [Ni(CN)4]2-
a. Tetrahedral b. square planar c. triangular d.octahedral (b)
An example of an ambidentate ligand is
a. CN b. Cl- c. NO2- d.I- (c)
[FeF6]4- is a paramagnetic because
a. F- is a weaker ligand b. F- is a stronger ligand
c. F- is a flexi dentate ligand d. F- is a chelating ligand (a)
In [Fe(CN)6]4-, the central metal ion is
a. Fe b. Fe+2 c. Fe+3 d. CN (b)
12. The coordination number of Ni(II) in [Ni(CN)4]2- is
a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 (b)
13The name of [PtIV(NH3)2Cl]2+ is
a. Diamminedichloroplatinum(IV) ion b. Diamminedichloroplanitate(IV)
c. Diamminedichloroplatinum d. Dichlorodiammineplatinum(IV) ion (a)
14. For a compound K4[Fe(CN)6] 4K+ + [Fe(CN)6]4- the complex ion is
a. K+ b.CN- c.FeII d.[Fe(CN)6]4- (d)
The theory which explains metal – ligand bond as ionic is
a. Werner’s theory b. Valence bond theory c. Crystal field theory
d. Arrhenius theory (c)
A metal ion from the first transition series forms a octahedral complex with magnetic moment of 4.9 BM and another octahedral complex which is diamagnetic. The metal ion is
a. Fe2+ b. CO2+ c.Mn2+ d. Ni2+ (a)
Paramagnetic moment is expressed in
a. Debye unit b. K joules c. BM d. ergs (c)
An octahedral complex of a metal ion has a magnetic moment of 5.9 BM and another octahedral complex of the same metal ion in the same oxidation state paramagnetic moment of 1.75 M. Which one of the following ions could it be ?
a. Fe2+ b. CO2+ c. Fe3+ d. CO3+ (c)
The type of isomerism found in the complexes [C0(NO2)(NH3)5] SO4 and [C0(SO4)(NH3)5] NO2
a. Hydrate isomerism b. Coordination isomerism c. Linkage isomerism d. ionization (d)
Valence bond theory does not explain the property of complex compound
a. geometry b.magnetic c. nature of ligand d. colour (b)
For a compound K4[Fe(CN)6] 4K+ + [Fe(CN)6] 4- , the complex ion is _____
a. K+ b.CN- c. FeII d.[Fe(CN)6]4- (d)
Which one of the following is a complex salt?
a. Nickel tetra carbonyl b. Potassium ferrocyanide
c. Potassium ferricyanide d. All the above (d)
Which one of the following is a neutral ligand?
a.cyano b. chloro c. nitrosyl d. iodo (c)
The IUPAC name for K3[FeIII (CN)6] is
a. Potassium ferrocyanide b. Potassium ferricyanide
c. Potassium hexa cyano ferrate (II) d. calcium hexa cyano ferrate (II) (d)
Co – ordination compound is a compound formed from a ____________
a. lewis acid and bronsted base b. Lewis acid and Lewis base
c. Lewis base and bronsted acid c. bronsted acid and bronsted base (a)
K4[Fe (CN)6] is an example of ____________
a. cationic complex b. double salt c. anionic complex d. Lewis acid (c)
When a single ligand has two co – ordinating positions, it is called __________
a. single ton b. bidentate ligand c. polydentate ligand d. binary ligand (b)
C2O42- is named as ___________
a. carbonato b.bicarbonyl c. bicarbanato d. oxalato (d)
If the complex ion is negative, the name of the metal ends in ______________
a. –o b.-ium c. – ate d. – ite (c)
The isomerism between [PtII (NH3)4[CuCl4] and [Cu (NH3)4 [PtCl4] is _________
a. co – ordination isomerism b. linkage isomerism
c. ligand isomerism d. ionization isomerism (a)
__________ isomerism occurs with ambidentate ligands
a. co – ordination b. linkage c. ligand d. ionization (b)
In sp3 d2 hybridisation, the co – ordination number is ___________
a. 2 b. 4 c.6 d. 8 (c)
7. NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY
The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by _________
a. madame curie b. Pierre curie c. Henry Becquerrel d. Rutherford (c)
The most penetrating radiations are
a.arays b.b rays c. g rays d. all are equally penetrating (c)
In the nuclear reaction, 92U238 82pb206, the number of a and b particles emitted are
a. 7a, 5 b b. 6a, 4 b c. 4a, 3 b d. 8a, 6 b (d)
4.Which one of the following particles is used to bombard 13AI27 to give 15p30 and a neutron
a. Ñ particle b. deuteron c. proton d. neutron (a)
5. The reaction 5B8 4B8 takes place due to
a. Ñ decay b. b decay c. electron capture d. poistron decay (d)
Radioactivity is due to
a. stable electronic configuration b. stable nucleus
c. unstable nucleus d. unstable electonic configuration (c)
7. In the following radioactivity decay, 92x232 89y220, how many a and b particles are ejected
a. 3a, 3 b b. 5a, 3 b c. 3a, 5 b d. 5a, 5 b (a)
8. 92U235 nucleus absorbs a neutron and disintegrates into 54Xe139, 38Sr94 and X. What will be the product X?
a. 3 neutrons b. 2 neutrons c. Ñ particle d.Ò particle (a)
9. Loss of a b - particle is equivalent to
a. increase of one proton only b. decrease of one neutron only
c. both a and b d. none of these (c)
9.Which of the following is used as neutron absorber in the nuclear reactor?
a. Water b. Deuterium c. Some compound of Uranium d. Cadmium (d)
10.The amount of energy absorbed or released during nuclear reaction is called __________of nuclear reaction
a. Q – value b. P – value c. D – value d. E – value (a)
11. amu = _______________
a. 931 eV b. 931 MeV c. 9.31 MeV d. 6.023 x 1023 eV (b)
12.The isotope which is used to measure the water content of the body is _______
a. Carbon – 11 b. Carbon – 14 c. Iodine – 131 d. Tritium (d)
13.Sr – 90 is useful for finding __________
a. levels of liquids in tanks b. adulterated substances in cement
c. purity of milk d. water content of a body (a)
8. SOLID STATE – II
The number of chloride ions that surrounds the central Na+ ion in NaCl crystal is ______
a. 12 b. 8 c. 6 d. 4 (c)
The Bragg’s equation is _________
a.l = 2 d sin q b. nd = 2 l sin q c. 2 l = nd sin q d. n l = 2d sin q (d)
A regular three dimensioinal arrangement of identical points in space is called _______
a. unit cell b. space lattice c. primitve d. crystallography (b)
4. The smallest repeating unit in space lattice which when repeated over and again results in the crystal of the given substance is called ____________
a. Space lattice b. Crystal lattice c. Unit cell d. Isomorphism (c)
5..The crystal structure of CsCl is _______
a. simple cubic b. face center cubic c. tetragonal d. body center cubic (d)
6. An ion leaves its regular site occupy a position in the space between the lattice sites is called _________________
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect c. impurity defect d. vacancy defect (a)
7. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess negative electrons are called
a. super conductors b. n type semi – conductors c. p – type semi conductors d. insulators (b)
8. In the Bragg’s equation for diffraction of X – rays, ‘n’ represents
a. number of moles b. Avagadro number c. Quantum number
d. order of reflection (d)
9. The 8 :8 type of packing is present in __________
a. MgF2 b.CsCl c. KCl d. NaCl (b)
10.The crystals which are good conductors of electricity and heat are _________
a. ionic crystals b. molecular crystals c. metallic crystals
d. covalent crystals (c)
11.In a simple cubic cell, each point on a corner is shared by ________
a. one unit cell b. 2 unit cell c. 8 unit cell d. 4 unit cell (c)
12. The ability of certain ultra cold substances to conduct electricity without resistance is called _________________
a. semi conductor b. conductor c.super conductor d. insulator (c)
13. The total number of atoms per unit cell is bcc is ______________
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 (b)
14. The force that generally occur in all kinds of molecular crystals _________
a. dipole – dipole force b. electro static force
c. Vanderwaals force d. all the above (c)
15. Rutile is ________
a. TiO2 b. Cu2O c. MoS2 d.Ru (a)
16. Semiconductors are used as ___________
a. Rectifiers b. Transistors c. Solar cells d. all the above (d)
An example of metal deficiency defect ____________
a. NaCl b. AgCl c. CsCl d. FeS (d)
An example of covalent crystal is ___________
a. Graphite b. Sulphur c.Diamond d. Rock salt (c)
Super conducting __________ are used in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Imaging equipment
a. metalloids b. tellurides c. solenoid d. metals (c)
9. THERMODYNAMICS
The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at constant temperature and pressure is called __________
a. DE b. DH c. DS d. DG (b)
All the naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to ____
a. decrease of entropy b. increase in enthalpy c. increase in free energy
d. decrease of free energy (d)
3.In an adiabatic process which of the following is true ?
a. q = w b. q = 0 c. DE = q d. PDV = 0 (b)
4. The standard free energy change, DG0 is related to equilibrium constant Kp as _____
a. Kp = -RT ln DG0 b. Kp = e c. Kp = -DG d. Kp = DG
RT RT RT (b)
5. When a liquid boils, there is _________
a. an increase in entropy b. an decrease in entropy
c. an increase in heat vaporization d. an increase in free energy (a)
If DG for a reaction is negative, the change is _________
a. spontaneous b. non - spontaneous c. reversible d. irreversible (a)
7. Which of the following does not result in an increase in the entropy?
a. crystallization of sucrose from solution b. rusting of iron
c. conversion of ice to water d. vaporization of camphor (a)
8.In which of the following process, the process is always non – feasible?
a. D H > 0, DS > 0 b DH < 0, DS > 0 c. DH > 0 , DS < 0 d. DH < 0 , D S < 0 (c)
9. Change in Gibb’s free energy is given by ___________
a. DG = D H + TD S b. DG = D H - TDS c. D G = D H x TDS
d. None of the above (b)
10. For the reaction 2Cl(g) Cl(2g), the signs of DH and DS respectively are ____
a. +,- b. +,+ c. -,- d. -, + (c)
11.For a reversible process at equilibrium, the entropy change DS is ___________
a. DH / D T b. T / qrev c. qrev / T d.TDH (c)
12.When a solid melts, there is __________
a. an increase in enthalpy b. no change in D H
c. a decrease in D H d. a decrease in D E (a)
13.Which of the following relation is not correct?
a. D H = DE - PD V b. D E = q + W c. D S sys + D Ssur >= 0
d. D Sfusion = D Hfusion / T (a)
14.For a natural process in any isolated system ____________
a. D S > 0 b. D S < 0 c. D S > = 0 d. D S < = 0 (a)
The sign convention for work done by the system is ______________
a. zero b. positive c. negative d. either positive or negative (c)
16. The property which does not depend on the quantity of matter is called
a. extensive b. intensive c. isothermic d. adiabatic (b)
What is the state of the reaction when DG = 0?
a. spontaneous b. non spontaneous c. equilibrium d. all these (c)
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM – II
State of chemical equilibrium is _________
a. dynamic b. stationery c. none d. both (a)
2. If the equilibrium constants of the reactions are 2A ⇄B is k1 and B⇄2A is k2 , then ________
a. k1 = 2k2 b.k1 = 1/k2 c. k2 = (k1)2 d. k1 =1 / k22 (b)
3. In the reversible reaction 2HI Û H2 + I2, Kp is _______________
a. greater than Kc b. Less than Kc c. Equal to Kc d.zero (c)
4..In the equilibrium N2 + 3H2 ⇄ 2NH3, the maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained with the process having __________
a. low pressure and high temperature b. low pressure and low temperature
c. high temperature and high pressure d. high pressure and low temperature (d)
5. For the homogeneous gas reaction at 600 K
4NH3(g) + 5O2 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
a. (mol dm-3)-1 b.mol dm-3 c. (mol dm-3)-10 d. (mol dm-3)-9 (b)
6. Two moles of ammonia gas are introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0 dm3 vessel in which it partially dissociates at high temperature. At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains. The equilibrium constant Kc for the dissociation is _________
a. 27/16 (mole dm-3)2 b. 27/8 (mole dm-3)2 c. 27/4 (mole dm-3)2 d.None of these (a)
7.An equilibrium reaction is endothermic if k1 and k2 are equilibrium constants at T1 and T2 temperatures respectively and if T2 is greater than T1 then __________
a. k1 < k2 b. k1 > k2 c. k1 = k2 d. None (a)
8. In an equilibrium, a catalyst ____________
a. increases the rate of forward reaction b. decreases the rate of forward reaction
c. increases the rate of reverse reaction
d. affects both forward and reverse reaction to the same extent (d)
9. Chemical reaction always go to completion if _____________
a. The molarity of the reacting solution is increased
b. The pressures of the reacting substances are increased
c. A volatile product is formed
d. None of the above (c)
10. In Haber’s process which combination of pressure and temperature give more amount of ammonia?
a. High pressure and high temperature b. High pressure and low temperature
c. Low pressure and low temperature d. Low pressure and high temperature (b)
The relationship between kp = kc is _____________
a. kp = kc b. kp = kc(RT) c. kp = kc+ RTDng d. kp = kc(RT) Dng (d)
11. CHEMICAL KINETICS
Hydrolysis of an ester by dilute HCl is an example for ___________
a. second order reaction b. zero order reaction
c. pseudo first order reaction d. first order reaction (c)
For the second order reaction t1/2 µ_________________
a. 1/a b. 1/a2 c.constant d. a (a)
3. The unit of zero order rate constant is _________
a. litre mol-1 sec-1 b. mol litre -1 sec-1 c. sec-1 d. litre 2 sec-1 (b)
4.The first order of reaction, the plot of log (a – x) against time ‘t’ gives a straight line ____
a. with positive slope b. with negative slope c. passing through origin
d. with no slope (b)
5. The excess energy which molecule must posses to became active is known as ____
a. kinetic energy b. threshold energy c. potential energy
d. activation energy (d)
6. Arrhenius equation is __________
a. K = Ae-I/RT b. K = Ae-RT / Ea c. K = Ae-Ea / RT d.K = AeEa / RT (c)
7.The term a in Arrhenius equation is called _____
a. probability factor b. activation of energy c. collision factor
d. frequency factor (d)
8. The sum of power os concentaration terms that occur in the rate equation is called ____
a. molecularity b. order c. rate d. rate constant (b)
9.The relationship between half – life period (t1/2) and first order rate constant is _____
a. t1/2 = 0.693 K b. t1/2 = 0.963 K c. t1/2 = 0.693 K t1/2 = K
K K 0.693 (c)
10. The reactions in which the reacting molecules react in more than one way yielding different set of products is called ______
a. consecutive reactions b. parallel reactions c. opposite reactions
d. chain reaction (b)
11. The half life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. Then its rate constant is __
6.93 x 102 min-1 b. 6.93 x 10-2 min-1 c. 6.932 x 10-2 min-1 d. 6.93 x 101 min-1 (c)
12. For a reaction : a A bB, the rate of reaction is doubled when the concentration of A is increased by four times. The rate of reaction is equal to ______
a.K[A]a b. K[A]1/2 c.K[A]1/a c.[A] (b)
13. For a reaction Ea = 0 and K= 4.2 x 105 sec-1 at 300 K, the value of K at 310 K will be _______
a. 4.2 x 105 sec-1 b. 8.4 x 105 sec-1 c. 8.4 x 105 sec-1 d. unpredictable (a)
14. decomposition of sulphuryl chloride in the gas phase proceed by ________ order kinetics
a. zero b. first c. second d. third (b)
15. For a zero order reaction half life period is __________
a. t1/2 µ a’ b. t1/2 µ a0 c. t1/2 µ a-1 d. t1/2 µ a-2 (a)
16. The first order order reaction takes 30 minutes for 75 percentage of the reaction to be completed. What is the rate constant for the forward reaction?
a. 4.767 x 10-2 per second b. 4.767 x 10-2 per min
c. 4.767 per second d. 4.6 x 10-2 per min (d)
17. The half life period of the reaction depends upon _________
a. initial concentration b. concentration after the half life c. concentration after completion of the reaction d. the nature of the substance (d)
12. ELECTRO CHEMISTRY
The process in which chemical change occurs on passing electricity is termed as _____
a. neutralization b. hydrolysis c. electrolysis d. ionization (c)
The laws of electrolysis were enunciated first by _______
a. Dalton b. Faraday c. Kekule d. Avagadro (b)
When one coulomb of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on the electrode equal to _____
a. equivalent weight b. molecular weight c. electro chemical equivalent
d. 1 gram (c)
Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to _____
a. atomic number of the cation b. atomic number of the anion
c. equivalent weight of the electrolyte d. speed of the cation (c)
The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of KCl is 0.0014 ohm-1 cm-1 at 250C. Its equivalent conductance is _____
a. 14 ohm-1cm2 eq-1 b. 140 ohm-1cm2 eq-1
c. 1.4 ohm-1cm2 eq+1 d. 0.14 ohm-1cm2 eq-1 (b)
6. The equivalent conductivity of CH3COOH at 250C is 80 ohm-1 cm2 eq-1 and at infinite dilution 400 ohm-1 cm2 eq-1 . The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is ___
a. 1 b. 0.2 c. 0.1 d. 0.3 (b)
7. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid, the degree of ionization of acetic acid
a. increases b. decreases c. does not change d. becomes zero (b)
8. NH4OH is a weak base because ________________
a. it has low vapour pressure b. it is only partially ionized
c. it is completely ionized d. it has low density (b)
Which one of the following formulae represents Ostwald’s dilution law for a binary electrolyte whose degree of dissociation is a and concentration C,
a. K = (1 - a) C/a b. K = a2 C / 1 - a c. K = (1 - a) C / a2
d. K = a2 C / (1 - a ) C (b)
10. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable in the case of the solution of _______
a. CH3COOH b.NaCl c. NaOH d. H2SO4 (a)
Which of the following relationship is correct?
a. pH = 1 / [H+] b. pH = log10[H+] c. log10 pH = [H+] d. pH = log10 1/ [H+] (d)
When 10-6 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in one litre of solvent, the pH of the solution is _____
a.6 b. 7 c. less than 6 d. more than 7 (b)
13.When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles litre-1 is _____
a. 1 x 10-12 b. 1 x 10-2 c.1 x 10-7 d.1 x 10-4 (b)
14. The pH of a solution , containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is __________
a. 1 b. 10-1 c. 13 d. 10-13 (c)
15.A solution which is resistant to changes of pH on addition of small amount of an acid or a base is known as _____
a. buffer solution b. true solution c. isohydric solution d. ideal solution (a)
16. The hydrogen ion concentration of a buffer solution consisting of a weak acid and its salt is given by _____
[H+] = Ka [Acid] b. [H+] = Ka [Salt] c. [H+] = Ka [Acid] d. [H+] = Ka [Salt]
[Salt] [Acid] (a)
17. Indicators used in acid – base titration’s are _____
a. strong organic acids b. strong organic bases
c. weak organic acids or weak against bases d. non electrolysis (c)
For the titration between oxalic acid and sodium hydroxide, the indicator used is ___
a. Potassium Permangnate b. Phenolpthalein c. Litmus d. Methyl orange (b)
19.Silicon doped with boron is an example of ____
a. intrinsic semi conductor b. n – type semi conductor
c. p – type semi conductor d. insulator (c)
20.Arsenic has _____ valence electrons
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 8 (c)
21.Semi conductors have ____ valence electrons
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d.6 (b)
22.The enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid by a strong base is _____
a. 5.732 kJ b. 57.32 kJ c. –57.32 kJ d. – 57.32 J (c)
23._____ coloumbs represent one Faraday
a. 96,495 b.9,649.5 c.964.95 d.96.495 (a)
The unit of specific resistance is _____
a. ohm b.mho c. ohm – m d. mho.m-1 (c)
The unit of specific conductance is _____
a. ohm – m-1 b. ohm-1 – m c. ohm-1 m-1 d. ohm – m-1 (c)
The reduction of degree of dissociation of a salt by the addition of a common ion is called the ____
a. Ostwald’s dilution Law b. common ion effect c. Faraday’s first Law d. Faraday’s second Law (b)
14. ELECTOCHEMISTRY – II
The potential of a single electrode in a half cell is called _______________
a. reduction potential b. half – wave potential c. single electrode potential
d. cell potential (c)
2. The relationship between free energy change and emf of a cell is __________
a. DG = -nFE b. DH = -nFE c. DE = nFG d. DF = nEG (a)
3. The feasibility of a redox reaction can be predicted with the help of _________
a. Electronegativity b. Electrochemical series c. Electron affinity
d. Equivalent conductance (b)
4.The metals near the bottom of the electrochemical series are ____
a. strong reducing agents b. strong oxidizing agents c. weak reducing agents
d. oxidizing agents (b)
5. The emf of a cell with 1 M solutions of reactants and products in solution at 250C is called __
a.Half cell potential b. Standard emf c. Single electrode potential d. Redox potential (b)
6. The relationship between equilibrium constant and standard emf of a cell is _____
a. E0 = 0.0591 log K b. 0.0591 E0 = log K c. nE0 = 0.0951 log K d. nE0 = 0.0591 log K
(d)
7. The oxidation half reaction that takes place in Daniel cell is ____
a. Zn + Cu2+ Zn2+ + Cu b. Zn Zn2+ + 2e-
c. Cu2+ + 2e- Cu d. Cu Cu2+ + 2e- (b)
8. The standard emf,E0 for Zn- Cu voltaic cell is ____
a. 1.5 V b. 1.1 V c. 1.8 V d. 0.11 V (b)
9. The Nernst equation is ____
a. E0 = E – 2.303 RT/nF log K b. E0 = E – 2.303 nF/ RT log K
c. E = E0 – 2.303 RT/nF log K d. E = E0 + 2.303 RT/nF log K (c)
15. ISOMERISM IN ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. 2 – butene exists in ____ isomeric forms
a. 2 b.3 c.4 d.None (b)
2. The geometrical isomers of butadiene are ___________ forms
a. cis and trans b. s-trans and s- cis c. d and 1 d. R and S (b)
3. The shape of cyclopropane is __________
a. butterfly b. open –envelope c. flat d. cyclic (c)
4. The energy difference between two forms of cyclohexane is __________
a. 6.5 K.cal/mole b. 6.5 Cal/mole c.9.5 K.cal/mole d. 9.5 Cal/mole (a)
5. The decrease in stability of cyclohexanol is due to __________
a. skew interaction b. flag – pole interaction c. Baeyer’s strain (d)
d. 1 : 3 diaxial interaction
Cyclohexanaol contains ____ % of equatorial cyclohexanol in the equilibrium mixture
a. 10 b.90 c. 50 d.75 (b)
The mesoform is said to be a _____ of the active form
a. diasteromer b. enantiomer c. racimer d. monomer (a)
The DPM of the disubstituted isomer is maximum for _______
a.Ortho isomer b. Meta isomer c. Para isomer d. None (a)
16. HYDROXY DERIVATIVES
1.Which has the highest boiling point ?
a. CH3CH3 b.CH3OH c.C2H5OH d. C3H8 (c)
2.Which is soluble in H2O ?
a.phenol b. alkanes c. alcohols d. alkenes (c)
3. Order of reactivity of alcohol towards sodium metal is
a. primary < secondary > tertiary b. primary > secondary > tertiary
c. primary < secondary < tertiary d. primary > secondary < tertiary (b)
4. The boiling point of ethyl alcohol should be less than that of
a. propane b. formic acid c. dimethyl ether d. None of these (b)
5. Ethyl alcohol cannot be usd as a solvent for CH3MgI because
a.CH3MgI reacts with alcohol giving methane
The reaction between them is explosive in nature
CH3MgI is converted into C2H5MgI
alcohol is immiscible with CH3MgI (a)
6. When alcohols are converted to alkyl chlorides by thionyl chloride in presence of pyridine the intermediate formed is
a. sulphonium ion b. chlorosulphonic acid c. alkyl chlorosulphite
d. chlorosulphite (c)
On oxidation of an alcohol gives an aldehyde having the same number of carbon atoms as that of alcohol. The alcohol is
a. 10 alcohol b. 20 alcohol c. 30 alcohol d. None (a)
8. A compound that gives a positive iodoform test is
a. 1 – pentanol b. 2 – pentanone c. 3 – pentanone d. pentanal (b)
9. The compound that reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is
a. butan – 1 – ol b. butan – 2– ol c. 2 – methyl propan – 1 – ol
d. 2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol (d)
10. The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because
phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide
phenoxide ioin is stronger base than ethoxide
phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalisation
phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide ion (c)
11. Among the following compounds strongest acid is
a. HC CH b. C6H6 c. C2H6 d. CH3OH (d)
12. p – nitrophenol is having lower pK4, value than phenol because
phenol is more acidic than p – nitro phenol
anion of p – nitro phenol is more stabilized by resonance than that of phenol
degree of ionization of p – nitro phenol is less than that of phenol
anion of p – nitro phenol is less stable than that of phenol (b)
13. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with
a. (CH3)3COH b. (CH3)2CHOH c. CH3(CH2)2OH d. CH3CH2OH (a)
14. When phenol is distilled with Zn dust it gives
a. benzaldehyde b. benzoic acid c. toluene d. benzene (d)
15. A compound that undergoes bromination easily
a. benzoic acid b. benzene c. phenol d. toluene (c)
16. Isomerism exhibited by ethylene glycol is
a. position isomerism b. chain isomerism c. functional isomerism d. both a and c (c)
17. Ethylene diamine is converted ethylene glycol using
a. Na2CO3 solution b. nitrous acid c. NaHCO3(Aqueous) d. Baeyer’s reagent (b)
18. 1 – propanol and 2 – propanol can be best distinguished by
a. oxidation with KmnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution
b. oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution
c. oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution
d. oxidation with concentrated H2SO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution (c)
Glycerol is used
a. as a sweetening agent b. in the manufacture of good quality soap
c. in the manufacture of nitro glycerin d. in all the above (d)
The alcohol obtained by the hydrolysis of oils and fats is
a. pentanol b. propanol c. glycerol d. glycol (c)
The number of secondary alcoholic group in glycerol is
a. 1 b.2 c.3 d.0 (a)
The active component of dynamite is
a. Keiselghur b. nitro glycerine c.nitro benzene d. trinitro toluene (b)
The reaction of ethylene glycol with PI3 gives
a. I CH2 CH2 I b. CH2 = CH2 c. CH2= CHI d. ICH = CHI (b)
The compound which reacts faster with Lucas reagent at room temperature is ___
a. 1 – butanol b. 2 – butanol c. 2 – methyl – 1 – propanol
2 – methyl – 2 – propanol (c)
High boiling point of phenol is due to ____
a. aromatic character b. covalent bond c. resonance
d. intermolecular hydrogen bonding (d)
Which reagent will distinguish C6H5OH from C6H5CH2OH?
a. NaHCO3(aq) b. NaOH(aq) c. CH2SO4 d. None of these (b)
The alcohol which is used in the manufacture of formaldehyde is ______
a. methanol b. ethanol c. aldol d. menthol (a)
1,3 dihydroxy benzene is also known as _____
a. resorcinol b. Quinol c.catechol d.cresol (a)
The product obtained in Schotten – Baumann reaction is _______
a. phenyl benzoate b. benzoyl chloride c. phenol
d. sodium benzoate (a)
17.ETHERS
1. The isomerism exhibited by C2H5OC2H5 and CH3 – O – CH – CH3
CH3
a. functional b. metamerism c. position d. chain (b)
Which one of the following is simple ether?
a. CH3 - O – C2H5 b. C2H5 – O – CH3 c. C2H5 – O - C2H5
d. C3H7 – O - C2H5 (c)
Diethyl ether can be decomposed with
a. HI b. KmnO4 c. NaOH d. H2O (a)
Oxygen atom of ether is
a. very active b. replacable c. oxidizing d. comparatively inert (d)
5. According to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are
a. Neutral b. Acidic c. Basic d. Amphoteric (c)
Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are not present in
a. CH3COOH b. C2H5O C2H5 c. Basic d. C2H5NH2 (b)
When ethyl Iodide is treated with dry silver oxide it forms
a. ethyl alcohol b. diethylether c. silver ethoxide d. ethylmethyl ether (b)
8. Williamson’s synthesis is an example of
a. nucleophilic addition b. electrphillic addition c. electrophillic substitution
d.Nucleophilic substitution reaction (d)
When ether is exposed to air for sometime an explosive substance produced is
a. peroxide b. oxide c. TNT d. superoxide (a)
Ether is formed when alkylhalide is treated with sodium alkoxide. This method is known as
a.Hoffmann reaction b. Williamson’s synthesis c. Wurtz synthesis
d. Kolbe’s reaction (b)
Higher ethers can be prepared from lower members with the help of ____
a. conc.H2SO4 b. sodium alkoxide c. dry silver oxide d. Grignard reagent (d)
When ethers are exposed to air it gives ___
a. peroxide b. oxonium salts c. ethyl alcohol d. CO2 + H2 O (a)
Which reagent is useful to distinguish between anisole and phenol
a. Baeyer’s reagent b. Tollen’s reagent c. Bromine water
d. Chromic acid (c)
Which one of the following can be obtained by Williamsons synthesis
a. Ethers b. Alcohols c. Aldehydes d. Acids (a)
18. CARBONYL COMPOUNDS
The chain isomer of 2 – methyl propanal is
a. 2 – butanone b. butanal c. 2 – methyl propanol
d. but – 3 ene – 2 – ol (b)
2. Schiffs reagent gives pink colour with
a. acetone b. acetaldehyde c. ethyl alcohol d. methyl acetate (b)
3. Isopropyl alcohol vapours with air over silver catalyst at 520 K give
a. tert.butyl alcohol b. acetaldehyde c. acetone d. 2 – propanol (c)
4. Mehtyl ketones are usually characterized by
a. the Fehling solution b. the iodoform test c. the Schiff’s test
d. the Tollen’s reagent (b)
5. Which of the following compounds is oxidized to give ethyl methyl ketone?
a. 2 – propanol b. 2 – pentanone c. 1 – butanol
d. 2 – butanol (d)
6. Formaldehyde polymerizes to give
a. paraldehyde b. paraformaldehyde c. formalin d. formic acid (b)
7.Tollen’s reagent is
a. ammonical cuprous chloride b. ammonical cuprous oxide
c. ammonical silver nitrate d. ammonical silver chloride (c)
8. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling solution, it gives a precipitate of
a. Cu2O b.CuO c. CuO + Cu2O d. Cu (a)
9. The compound that does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction is
a.fomaldehyde b. acetaldehyde c. benzaldehyde d. trimethyl acetaldehyde (b)
10. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of
a. electrophillic addition b. nucleophilic addition
c. nucleophilic substitution d. electrophilic substitution (b)
11.Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in the presence of Pd and BaSO4 gives
a. phenol b. benzoic acid c. benzyl alcohol d. benzaldehyde (d)
12. From which of the following, tertiary butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnetism iodide?
a. HCHO b. CH3CHO c. CH3COCH3 d. CO2 (c)
13. During reduction of aldehydes with hydrazine and C2H5ONa the product formed is
a. R – CH = N – NH2 b. R – C N c. R – C – NH2 d. R– CH3
O (d)
14. Aldol is
a.2 – hydroxy butanol b. 3 - hydroxy butanol c. 3 - hydroxy butanal
d. 2 – hydroxy butanal (c)
In the reduction of acetaldhyde using LiAIH4 the hydride ion acts as
a. electrophile b. nucleophile c. both a and b d. a free radical (b)
Which of the following statement is wrong?
a. 2 – pentanone and 3 pentanone are position isomers
b. aqueous solution of formaldehyde is known as formalin
c. aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic substitution
d. aldehydes act as reducing agents (c)
A cyanohydrin of a compound X on hydrolysis gives lactic acid. The X is
a. HCHO b. CH3CHO c. (CH3)2CO d. C6H5CH2CHO (b)
18. The IUPAC name of CH3 – C = CH – CH3 is
CH3 O
a. 4 – methylpent – 3 – en 2 – one b. 2 – methylpent – 3 – en 2 – one
c. 3 – methylpent – 3 – en 2 – one d. None of these (a)
19.Which of the following does not give iodoform test?
a. aceto phenone b. benzophenone c. CH3 – CHOH d. CH3 – CH – CH2 CH2 – CH3
CH3 OH (b)
20. The compound which does not reduce Fehling solution?
a. formaldehyde b. acetaldehyde c. benzaldehyde d. propionaldehyde (c)
21. CH3COCH3 the product is
a. mesitylene b. mesityl oxide c. phorone d. paraldehyde (a)
22.Which compound on strong oxidation gives propionic acid ?
a. CH3 – CH – CH3 b. CH3 – CO – CH3 c. CH3 d. CH3 CH2 CH2 OH
OH CH3 – C - OH
CH3 (d)
23. The compound used in the preparation of the tranquilizer, sulphonal is
a. acetone b. acetophenone c. isopropyl alcohol d. glycol (a)
24. Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate gives
a. benzophenone b. benzaldehyde c. acetophenone d. phenyl benzoate (c)
25. Bakelite is a product of reaction between
a. formaldehyde and NaOH b. phenol and methanal
c. aniline and NaOH d. phenol and chloroform (b)
Which one of the following is a hydrogen
a. CH3CH2CHO b. CH3CH2CHO c. CH3CH2CHO d. CCL3CHO (b)
Ammonia derivatives acts as ____
a. nucleophile b. electrophile d. hydrophile d. lyophile (a)
The oil of bitter almond is ________
a. acetaldehyde b. formaldehyde c. benzaldehyde d. phenol (c)
When acetone is reduced by sodium amalgam and water, it gives _______
a. propan – 2 – ol b. propan – 1 – ol c. propan – 2 –al d. propane (a)
Primary alcohols on oxidation give
a. aldehydes b. ketones c. acid anhydrides d. esters (a)
In the preparation of aldehydes by the dry distillation of calcium salts which one of the following is always used?
a. Calcium benzoate b. Calcium formate c. Calcium acetate d. None of these (b)
Which one of the following is used as an urinary antiseptic
a. Hexamethylene diamine b. Hexamethylene tetramine
c. Urease d. None of these (b)
Acetone under Clemmenson reduction gives ______
a. propane b. 1 – propanol c. 2 – propanol d. acetic acid (a)
19.CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
Which of the following is least acidic?
a. C2H5OH b. CH3COOH c.C6H5OH d. ClCH2COOH (a)
Weakest acid among the following is
a. Acetic acid b. Phenol c. Water d. Acetylene (d)
Ester formation involves the reaction of
a. an aldehyde and a ketone b. An alcohol with RMgX
c. Two molecules of an acid with dehydrating agent d.An aclhalide with an alcohol (d)
Heating a mixture of sodium acetate and soda lime gives
a. methane b. ethane c. acetic acid d. benzene (a)
The acid which reduces Tollen’s reagent is
a. acetic acid b. benzoic acid c. formic acid d. oxalic acid (c)
The IUPAC name of CH3 – CH2 – COOH is
a. Ñ - methyl butric acid b. 3 – methyl butanoic acid
c. 2 – methyl butanoic acid d. Iso pentanoic acid (c)
The Isomerism exhibited by CHCH2COOCH3 is
a. metamerism b. position c. chain d. functional (d)
The acid that cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent
a. acetic acid b. formic acid c. butyric acid d. benzoic acid (b)
Which order of arrangement is correct in terms of the strength of the acid
a. CH3 – CH2COOH > CH3COOH < HCOOH < ClCH2COOH
b. ClCH2COOH < HCOOH < CH3COOH < CH3CH2COOH
c. CH3 – CH2COOH < CH3COOH < HCOOH < ClCH2COOH
d. HCOOH > CH3CH2COOH < CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH (c)
The compound which undergoes intramolecular dehydration with P2O5 is
a. acetic acid b. formic acid c. propionic acid d. Butyric acid (b)
C = O ? the product is
a. CO + H2O b. HCOOH c. H2 + CO2 d. HCHO + O2 (c)
When chlorine is passed through acetic acid in presence of red P, it forms
a. acetyl chloride b. Trichloro acetaldehyde c. Trichloro acetic acid
d. Methyl chloride (c)
Which of the following compounds will react with NaHCO3 solution to give sodium salt and CO2?
a.acetic acid b. n – hexanol c. phenol d. both a and c (a)
When propanoic acid is treated with aqueous sodium – bicarbonatate, CO2 is liberated. The “C” of CO2 comes from
a. methyl group b. carboxyclic acid group c. methylene group d. bicarbonate (d)
Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and alcohol because of
e. inter molecular hydrogen bonding
f. formation of dimmers
g. highly acidic hydrogen
h. greater resonance stabilization of their conjugate base (d)
Among the following the strongest acid is
a.CICH2COOH b. Cl3CCOOH c. CH3COOH d.Cl2CHCOOH (b)
17.Which of the following compound is optically active
a. CH3CH2COOH b. HOOC – CH2 – COOH c. CH3CH(OH)COOH
d. Cl2CHCOOH (c)
18. CH3COCOOH ? the product is
a. CH3COCOOH b. CH3CH2COOH c. CH3CHOHCHO d. COOHCH2COOH (a)
19. The compound found in some stony deposit in kidneys is
a. potassium oxalate b. oxalic acid c. potassium succinate
d. calcium oxalate (d)
20. Ethylene cyanide on hydrolysis using acid gives
a. oxalic acid b. succinic acid c. adipic acid d. propionic acid (b)
Which one of the following reaction takes place when carboxylic acid is heated with soda lime?
a. Decarboxylation b. Oxidation c. Dehydration d. Dehydrogenation (a)
By which reagent can we distinguish formic acid from acetic acid?
a. Schiff’s base b. Tollen’s reagent c. Benedic’s reagent d. None of the above (b)
Benzene can be obtained from benzoic acid by heating with ___
a. conc.H2SO4 b. NAOH + CaO c. PCl5 d. H2 / Pt (b)
The oil of winter green contains___
a. formalin b. methyl salicylate c. butanoic acid d. butyric acid (b)
Carboxylic acids have high boiling point due to ___
a. –COOH group b. – C – group c. hydroxy bonding d. –OH group (c)
Chlorination of acetic acid takes place in presence of ____
a. phosphorous b. iodine c. phosphorous or iodine d. none of these (c)
The acid used in calico printing is __
a. formic acid b. acetic acid c. lactic acid d. oxalic acid (d)
20. ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS
Bromo ethance reacts with silver nitrite to give
a. C2H5NO2 b. C2H5- O - NO c. C2H5Ag + NaBr d. C2H5NC (a)
The isomerism exhibited by CH3 - CH2 – N and CH3 CH2 – O – N - = O is
a. position b. chain c. functional d. tautomerism (c)
3.In nitro alkanes – NO2 group is converted to –NH2 group by the reaction with
a.Sn/HCl b. Zn dust c. Zn/NH4Cl d. Zn/NaOH (a)
4.When nitromethane is reduced with Zn dust + NH4Cl in neutral medium, we get
a. CH3NH2 b. C2H5NH2 c. CH3NHOH d. C2H5COOH (c)
5.The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
a. Toluene b. benzene c. benzoic acid d. nitrobenzene (a)
6. Nitromethane condenses with acetaldehyde to give
a. nito propane b. 1 – nitro – 2 – propanol c. 2 – nitro – 1- propanol
d. 3 – nitro propanol (b)
7. which of the following compounds has the smell of bitter almonds?
a. aniline b. nitro methane c. benzene sulphonic acid d. nitrobenzene (d)
8. Nitration of nitrobenzene results in
a. o – dinitro benzene b. 1,3,5 – trinitro benzene c. p – dinitro benzene
d. m – dinitro benzene (d)
9. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction is con.sulphuric acid, the intermediate formed is
a. C6H5NH - NHC6H5 b. C6H5 – NHOH c. C6H5 – N = N - C6H5
d.C6H5HSO4 (b)
Electrophile used in the nitration of benzene is
a. hydronium ion b. sulphonic acid c. nitronium ion d. bromide ion (c)
The reduction of CH3 – CH2 – C = N with sodium and alcohol results in the formation of
a. CH3 – CH – CH3 b. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH + N2
NH2
c. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2 d. CH3 – CH2 – NH2 (c)
12. The basic character of amines is due to the
a. tetrahedral structure b. presence of nitrogen atom
c. lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom d. high electronegativity of nitrogen (c)
13. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine rection is
a. (C2H5)2NH b. C2H5NH2 c. (C2H5)3N d. (C2H5)4N+I- (b)
14. Primary amine acts as
a. Electrophile b. Lewis base c. Lewis acid d.Free radical (b)
15. Oxidation of aniline with acidified potassium dichromate gives
a. p – benzo quinone b. benzoic acid c. benzaldehyde d. benzyl alcohol (a)
16. Which one of the following is a secondary amine ?
a. aniline b. diphenyl amine c. sec.butylamine d. tert .butylamine (b)
17. C6H5NH2 X. Identify X
a. C6H5Cl b. C6H5NHOH c. C6H5N2Cl d. C6H5OH (c)
18. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation?
a. m- toluidine b. aniline c. p-amino phenol d. benzyl amine (d)
19. Aniline differs from ethylamine by the reaction with
a. metallic sodium b. an alkyl halide
c. chloroform and caustic potash d. nitrous acid (d)
20. When aqueous solution of benzene diazonium chloride is boiled the product formed is
a. benzyl alcohol b. benzene + N2 c. phenol d. phenyl hydroxylamine (c)
21. In nitroalkanes, -NO2 , group is converted to –NH2, group by the reaction with
a. Sn/HCl b. Zn dust c. Zn / NH4Cl d. Zn/NaOH (a)
22. What is the product formed when nitrobenzene is reduced with Zn and aqueous NaOH?
a. Hydrazobenzene b. Azoxybenzene c. Aniline d. Nitrobenzene (a)
23. The basic character amines is due to the ____
a. presence of nitrogen atom b. tetrahedral structure
c. lone pair of electron on the nitrogen atom d. high electro negativity of nitrogen (c)
24. The foul smell of carbylamines reaction is due to the formation of ____
a. alkyl cyanide b. alkyl isocyanide c. alkyl isocynate
d. alkyl cyanate (b)
25. An organic compound C7H9N answers carbylamine reaction but produces primary alcohol with nitrous acid. The compound may be
a. aniline b. benzylamine c. o - toluidine d. p - toluidine (b)
26. Aniline forms Schiff’s base with ____
a. benzyl alcohol b. benzal chloride c. benzaldehyde
d. acetic anhydride (c)
27.C6H5NH2 X, Identify X ________
a. C6H5N2Cl b. C6H5Cl c. C6H5NHOH d. C6H5OH (a)
28.The reagent is used for the conversion of benzene diazonium chloride into nitrobenzene__
a. copper powder b. HBF4 c. NaNO2 d.all the above (d)
29. Benzene diazonium chloride can be converted into iodobenzene by boiling it with ___
a. CuCl2/HI b. I2 c. CH3I d. KI (d)
21. BIOMOLECULES
1. Which is a mono saccharide among the following
a. Sucrose b. Cellulose c. Maltose d. Glucose (d)
2. Identify the reducing sugar
a. Sucrose b. Cellulose c. Starch d. Glucose (d)
3. Sucrose is not
a. a di saccharide b. a non – reducing sugar
c. hydrolysed to only glucose d. hydrolysed to glucose & fructose (c)
4. Sucrose contains glucose and fructose linked by
a.C1 - C1 b. C1 - C2 c. C1 - C2 d. C1 - C2 (b)
5. Glucose is not oxidized to gluconic acid by
a. Br2/H2O b. Fehling solution c. Tollen’s reagent d. Conc. HNO3 (a)
6. Inversion of sucrose refers to
a. oxidation of sucrose b. reduction of sucrose
c. hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose d. polymerization of sucrose (c)
7. Glucose forms _____ will acetic anhydride and sodium acetate
a. di acetate b. tetra acetate c. penta acetate d. hexa acetate (c)
8. The amino acid without chiral carbon is
a. Glysine b. Alanine c. Proline d. Thyrosine (a)
9. The building block of proteins are
a. . Ñ - hydroxy acids b. Ñ -amino acids c. Ò - hydroxy acids d. Ò - amino acids (b)
10. Which is not true of amino acid?
a. amino acid forms Zwitter ion b. has isoelectric point
c. dual behaviours d. amino acid is insoluble in NaOH solution (d)
11. Two amino acids say A, B – react to give
a. two dipeptides b. three dipeptides c. four dipeptides d. only one (d)
12. A di peptide does not have
a. two peptide units b. portions of two amino acids c. an amido group
d. salt like structure (a)
13. Proteins are not sensitive to
a. acids b. bases c. elevated temperature d. water (d)
14. Denaturation does not invlove
breaking up of H – bonding in proteins
b. the loss of biological action of enzyme
c, the loss of secondary structure
d. the loss of primary structure of proteins (b)
15. Specificity of enzyme is due to
the sequence of amino acids
secondary structure
tertiary structure
all of the above (d)
16. Ultimate products of hydrolysis of proteins is
a. aniline b. aliphatic acid c. amino acid d. aromatic acid (c)
17. Proteins are
a. polypeptides b. poly acids c. poly phenols d. poly esters (a)
18.which of the following contains a lipid?
a. starch b. mineral oil c. edible oil d. peptide (c)
Primary structure of proteins refer to
a. amino acid present b. the shape of protein molecule
c. the peptide bond d. the sequence of amino acid (d)
Important constituent of cell wall is
a. lipid b. cellulose c. protein d. vitamin (b)
22. CHEMISTRY IN ACTION
1. The substance capable of absorbing blue light from the visible radiation would appear _____
a. yellow b. yellow – green c. red d. blue (b)
2. The unsaturated group(s) present in an organic compound is/are called ______
a. chromogens b. auxochromes c. no specific name
d. chromophores (d)
If an auxochrome does not affect the colour of the chromogen, it should be present in the ____position relative to chromophore
a. para b. meta c. ortho d. same (b)
4. In the compound, O2 N – C6H4 – N = N – C6H4- N (CH3)2, the chromophore is
a. – NO2 b. – N = N – c. – NO2 and – N = N – d. – N (CH3)2 (b)
5. Diazonium salts give coupling reactions with
a. alcohol b.aromatic amines c. all amines d. amines and phenols (b)
6. Direct dyes are most suitable for fibres which can form
a. coordinate bonds b. adsorption layer c. hydrogen bonds d. dispersed layer (c)
7. For a dye containing sulphonic acid, the suitable mordant is ____
a. tannin b.Sodium acetate c.cellulose d.metallic hydroxide (b)
8. Substances which bring the body temperature down to normal temperature are known as _
a. antipyretics b. analgesics c. antibiotics d. none (b)
9. The compound which acts both as antipyretic as well as analgesic is ______
a. phenacetin b.sulpha drugs c. paracetamol d. aspirin (b)
10. A 1% solution of phenol is a _____
a. antiseptic b.disinfectant c. anti malarial drug d. antihistamine (b)
11. The medicine used for curing rabies is called _____
a. antibacterial b.antiviral c. antifungal c. antibiotics (b)
Amatol is a mixture of ___
a. TNT and AN b. TNT and CAN c. Toluene and AN d. BHC and AN (a)
Valcanising is the process of heating rubber with ______
a. phosphorus b. Nitrogen c. sulphur d. peroxide compound (c)
Thiokol is a copolymer of _______
a. Isobutylene and Butadiene b. Butadiene and chloroprene
c. Ethylene dichloride and Sodium Tetra sulphide d. Butadiene and styrene (c)
High altitude aircraft components are made from
a. buna N – rubber b. Natural rubber c. thiokol d. Neoprene (a)
The drug used to cure bronchitis is ____
a. Aspirin b. Sulpha drugs c. Pencillin d. Paracetamol (c)
Nylon is prepared from _____
a. Ethylene Glycol and adipic acid
b. Hexa methylene diamine and phthalic acid
c. Ethylene Glycol and Nitric acid
d. Adipic acid and Hexamethylene diamine (d)
The stabilizer mixed with ether is ____
a. Ethyl chloride b. N2O c. propyl halide d. chloroform (c)
Quinine is obtained from bark of ______
a.madder plant b. cinchona c. indigo d. wood sorrel (b)
_____ is used for preserving the colourless fruits like apple, litchi, mango, chutney and lemon squashes
a. Sodium benzoate b. potassium sulphate c. Potassium meta – bi sulphate
d. Vinegar (c)
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