Monday, June 1, 2009

computer science one marks


VOLUME I : TOOLS - STAROFFICE
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
LESSON 1 : AN INTRODUCTION TO STAROFFICEWRITER
1. Which of the following is not a word processing package?
a. Lotus Amipro b. Star office calc c. Word Pro d. Word Perfect
2. What steps are to be used to save a document?
a. File®save b. Ctrl+s c. save icon d. all of these
3. Which of the following one always work with the document in StarOfficeWriter?
a. Editing b. formatting
c. switch between documents d. editing and formatting
4. Which key is used to select the entire document in StarOfficeWriter?
a. Ctrl+e b. ctrl+l c. ctrl+a d. ctrl+d
5. Which of the command is used to copy the selected text in StarOfficeWriter?
a. ctrl+x b. ctrl+c c. ctrl+m d. ctrl+v
6. Which button in the Find & Replace dialog box is used to make all the replacements
without conformation?
a. replace b. all replace c. replace all d. search all
7. Which of the following is commonly used editing in StarOfficeWriter?
a. Search & Replace b. cut & paste c. copy & paste d. all of these
8. Which of the following application designed to work on different operating
System?
a. MS office b. VB c. Staroffice d. internet explorer
9. Which of the following keyboard shortcuts can be used to move text?
a. ctrl+x & ctrl+p b. ctrl+c & ctrl+v c. ctrl+x & ctrl+v d. ctrl+c & ctrl+p
10. Which key in StarOfficeWriter is used to move one character right?
a. left arrow b. right arrow c. Tab d.shift+®
11. Which key is used to select the required text in star office writer?
a. shift b. ctrl c. alt d. tab
12. Which menu is selected to paste the text in new location in star office writer?
a. file b. tools c. edit d. format
13. The user can move to various portions of the document using?
a. insertion point b. keyboard short cuts
c. mouse d. keyboard short cuts or mouse
14. Which of the following key move the insertion point one cell to left in a table?
a. tab b. ctrl+tab c. shift+tab d. alt+tab

15. How many sets of scroll bars are there in StarOfficeWriter?
a. 2 b.3 c.4 d.10
16. Which key deletes the characters to the right of the insertion point?
a. backspace b. shift+tab c. delete d. end
17. Which of the key must not be pressed at the end of each line?
a. alt b. tab c. shift d.. enter
18. Which menu option is used to switch between documents in StarOfficeWriter ?
a. file b. tools c. window d. format
19. To toggle between type over mode and the insert mode, which key is used?
a. backspace b. delete c. home d. insert
20. Which of the following option, to search for a particular text in StarOfficeWriter?
a. Edit ® File & Replace b. Tools® Find & Replace
c. Format® Find & Replace d. Edit ® Find & Replace
21. In the StarOfficeWriter what indicates where the new text will appear on the screen?
a. pointer b. insertion point c. marker d. key
22. What is used to create a database?
a. Star office base b. star office calc c. star office impress d. StarOfficeWriter
23. What are grouped together into an integrated environment?
a. functions b. applications c. documents d. desktop
24.A document contain what?
a. text and tables b. graphs and charts c. pictures and drawings d. all of these
25. Spread sheet is created using?
a. StarOfficeBase b. StarOfficeCalc c. StarofficeImpress d. StarOfficeWriter





LESSON 2 : TEXT FORMATING

1. Which of the following are the most common types of text formatting?
a. Bold b. Italic c. Underline d. All of these
2. In which of the following menu the formatting options are available ?
a. Edit b. Tools c. Format d. Window
3. Which of the following menu is used to select a formatting option ?
a. Character b. Style c. Format d. Font
4. Which icon is to use a different text colour ?
a. Text colour b. Font colour c. Text d. Font
5. Which is used to call attention to key ideas or pointers in a document?
a. Highlighting b. editing c. Formatting d. Text colour
6. Which option is used to remove the highlighting option from the colour palette?
a. Fill b. No fill c. Highlight d. No highlight
7. How many types of alignment are there in StarOfficeWriter?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d.5
8. Which of the following key is used to center align the text in StarOfficeWriter?
a. Ctrl+e b. ctrl+j c. ctrl+r d. ctrl+c
9. The short cut key used to make text justified in StarOfficeWriter is
a. ctrl+k b. ctrl+j c. ctrl+r d. ctrl+l
10. Which of the following is used to indent text?
a. Formatting toolbar b. Paragraphing dialog box c. Menu bar d. (a) or (b)
11. Which option can be used to indent the line of the paragraph?
a. Line b. First line c. Paragraph d. Line spacing
12. How many types of formatting are in StarOfficeWriter?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d.5
13. Which of the following option provides the document more readability?
a. Formatting b. Font c. Indentation d. Highlighting
14. Which of the following is used to list the important points and messages?
a. Bullets b. Numbers c. Highlighting d. . Bullets and Numbers
15. Which of the following is used to make selected text to italics ?
a. ctrl+I b. ctrl+b c. alt+I d. shift+i
16. Which of the following is used to make selected text to underlined?
a. alt+u b. shift+u c. ctrl+u d. ctrl+alt+u


17. Which of the following command is used to achieve formatting ?
a. Edit1character b. Format1character c. Tools1character d. view1character
18. Which of the following is the decorative font ?
a. Fajita b. Times new roman c. Arial d. Arial black
19. Which of the following short cut key is used to make text left aligned?
a. ctrl+l b. ctrl+shift+l c. shift+l d. alt+l
20. Which of the following short cut key is used to make text right aligned?
a. alt+r b. ctrl+a c. ctrl+r d. shift+r



LESSON 3 : CHEKING THE SPELLING MISTAKES
1. Which key is to be pressed to delete the misspelled and word and the word is retyped.
a. Delete b. Insert c. Backspace d. None of these
2. Which button is used to skip the spelling change for the current word in spellcheck
dialog box?
a. Ignore b. Replace c. ignore all d. ignore once
3. Which key is pressed to select the spelling command?
a. F2 b. F5 c. F1 d. F7
4.Which of the following recognizes some common misspellings and typographical
mistakes and makes the replacement automatically?
a. autocorrect b. StarOfficeWriter c. autospellchek d. all of these
5.Which of the following includes a dictionary and spell check in star office?
a. StarOfficeWriter b. StarofficeCalc c. StarofficeDraw d. StarOfficeBase
6. Which text box is used to enter replacement word in autocorrect dialog box?
a. replace b. change c. with d. replace with
7.Which is very useful for correcting the spelling of the commonly misspelled words?
a. autospell check b. tools®spelling®check c. autocorrecct d. autoformat
8. How many ways StarOfficeWriter can identify the spelling mistakes in document?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 6
9. How many ways mistakes can be corrected in star office document?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 6
10. Which button is used to add the word to star office writer dictionary?
a. replace b. add c. change d. enter
11. Which colour is used to underline the words that do not match with the words in the
dictionary in StarOfficeWriter?
a. blue b. green c. black d. red
12. Which command is used to add the error and correction word to autocorrect list?
a. tools®autocorrect b. format®autocorrect
c. insert®autocorrect d. edit®autocorrect
13. Which of the following method can identify the spelling mistakes even as the
document is typed?
a. autocorrect b. spell check c. auto spellcheck d. all of these
14. Which of the following displays the alternative spelling in spellcheck dialog box?
a. replacement b. dictionary c. suggestion d. replace



LESSON : 4 WORKING WITH TABLES
1. Which of the following key is used to move forward through the cells?
a. tab b. shift+tab c. ctrl+tab d. ctrl+home
2. Which of the following is an intersection of a column and a row?
a. grid b. cell c. table d. data
3. Which of the following key is used to move backward through cells?
a. tab b. shift+tab c. ctrl+tab d. ctrl+home
4. Which of the following command is used to select the entire table?
a. File® Select® All b. table®select® Table
c. Edit® SelectAll d. tools®select®all
5. How will you make all columns even?
a. column®space equally b. space equally®column
c. column®width equally d. width equally®column
6. Which icon is used to combine two or more cells into a single cell?
a. table fixed b. table cell c. merge cell d. combine cells
7. Which of the following is used to change the borders of the tables?
a. floating toolbar b. standard c. floating or table formatting d. standard or floating
8. Which dialog box can be used to set the width of the column to an exact size of the
StarOffficeWriter table?
a. insert table b. table format c. format table d. table insert
9. Which of the following command is used to insert a table in StarOfficeWriter
document?
a. insert®table®table b. tools®insert®table
c. table ® insert®table d. insert®table®rows and columns
10. Which command is used to insert a floating toolbar in star writer document?
a. table ® insert b. view®Toolbars®insert
c. tools®insert®table d. none of these
11. Which command is used to insert more than one row in the table?
a. table ® insert®rows b. format®rows® insert
c. format® insert®rows d. table ® insert®rows
12. Which command is used to insert more than one column in the table?
a. format® column® insert b. format® insert®column
c. table ® insert® column d. table ® insert®rows



13. Which command is used to delete the selected rows?
a. table ® rows®delete b. table ® delete® rows
c. format®rows® delete d. format® delete®rows

14. Which key is pressed to delete only entries in the table?
a. tab b. backspace c. delete d. ctrl+alt
15. Which key is held down to resize the row?
a. ctrl b. shift c. tab d. alt
16. Which icon is clicked to insert a table in a StarOfficeWriter ?
a. table b.insert table c. table insert d. floating table
17. Which toolbar appears if the mouse button is not released?
a. main b. formatting c. floating d. standard
18. In floating toolbar, pointing to the insert table icon displays?
a. grid b. rows c. columns d. toolbar
19. In floating toolbar, which icon is the insert table?
a. first b. second c. third d. fourth
20. How is a table identified by?
a. row b. column c. name d. cell


LESSON 5 : PAGE FORMATTING
1. What is the size of top and bottom margins?
a.1inch b 1.25 inch c. 1.5 inch d 0.5 inch
2.Which dialog box is used to make changes for the margins?
a. style b page c. page style d. margin
3. which tab is selected for margin settings in page style dialog box?
a. organizer b page margin c header d. page
4.Which option on the file menu can be used to see the changes in the document?
a. Page preview b view page c print preview d preview
5. By default what is the size of the documents that are printed?
a. 8.5 x 11.5 inch b 8 x 11.5 inch c 8 x 11 inch d. 8.5 x 11 inch
6.How many types of page orientation are there?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 2 d. 5
7.Which of the following tab is to be selected to change the page orientation?
a orientation b page c organizer d header
8.Page option is available under which menu?
a.file b. edit c. insert d. format
9. Which area of the ruler indicates the margin’s top area?
a. black b. grey c. white d. black and white
10. Which is dragged to a new location in the ruler?
a. margins b. margin guide c. left margin d. right margin
11.Where can you find the ruler option?
a.file b. edit c.view d. format
12.Which is moved between the grey and white area of the ruler?
a. indication pointer b. insertion pointer c. mouse d. mouse pointer
13. Which is the default page orientation?
a. header b.landscape c. portrait d. footer
14. What is the area of the top of the page?
a. footer b. header c. head d. foot
15. Which check box is clicked to create header in the page style dialog box?
a. header on b. footer on c. head on d. foot on
16 How many methods are available to change the margins?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1




17 what is the default margin of left and right ?
a. 1.25 inches b. 1 inch c. 1.50 inches d. 1.20 inches
18 What tab is clicked to create a footer?
a. head b. header c. footer d. foot
19 Which lists a list of options in the header/ footer tab?
a. field b. submenu c. page style d. insert
20.Which of the following is used to change the paper size?
a.. check box b. radio buttons c. text box d. drop down list box





LESSON : 6 : SPREADSHEET
1. Who invented VisiCalc?
a. DanBricklin b .BobFrankston and Bill Gates
c .Bill Gates and Bricklin d. DanBricklion and BobFrankston
2. How many rows are there in StarOfficeCalc?
a. 256 b. 63 c. 32000 d. 8192
3. How many rows and columns does VisiCalc contains?
a. 256,63 b.254,63 c 256,32000 d. 32000,256
4.Which of the following is not a spreadsheet pacakage?
a. Lotus amipro b. Lotus c. Excel d. ViciCalc
5.Which of the following function displays the contents of a cell in currency format?
a. @ b.% c.$ d. &
6. Which of the following sign is used to a cell address can be made absolute?
a. # b.% c.$ d. &
7. Which of the following are predefined or built in formulae available in StarOfficeCalc?
a. syntax b. cell address c. operators d. functions
8. Which function key is used to edit the data in the spreadsheet?
a. F5 b. F7 c. F1 d. F2
9. With what symbol does the syntax of formula begin with?
a. $ b. # c. = d. &
10. Which of the following is the sequence of characters used in a formula?
a. values b. operators c. cell referencing d. all of these
11.Which operator return true or false?
a. % b. ^ c. = d. – (negation)
12.Which operator does not return numeric results in the StarOfficeCalc?
a. ^ b. = c.% d. – (negation)
13. Which operator is a text operator ?
a. ^ b. + c. & d. =
14. Which reference operator is named as intersection?
a. : b. ! c. & d. =
15. Which reference operator is used to refer range in StarOfficeCalc?
a.: b. ! c. & d. ^



16. How many types of cell referencing in StarOfficeCalc?
a. 4 b. 2 c.3 d.2
17.Which of the following is a default cell referencing?
a. Relative b. Absolute c. Range d. Both a and b
18 Which icon is used to insert objects like charts, images and formula in a worksheet?
a. chart icon b. picture icon c. formula icon d. object icon
19. Which of the following icon is used to draw rectangle in a worksheet?
a. show draw functions b. show functions c. draw function d none
20 Which option is used to preview a worksheet in StarOfficeCalc?
a. preview b. print preview c. Page Preview d. view
21 In StarOfficeCalc a spreadsheet contains how many number of sheet(s)?
a. only 1 b. 2 c.10 d.. multiple
22 Which operator is used for separating the cells of the same sheet?
a. . ( dot) b. : (colon) c ; (semi colon) d , (comma)
23 Where does the list of sheet names appear in the window?
a. top b bottom c left d right
24 In which format the date format that entered in a cell in StarofficeCalc?
a. DD/MM/YY b MM/DD/YY c YY/DD/MM d YY/MM/DD


LESSON-7 : DATABASE
1. Which of the following is a fact about people, places or entities?
a. Data b. Information c. Database d. DBMS
2.Which of the following is as group of related data conveying some meaning?
a. Database b. Information c. DBMS d. Data
3. How many types of databases are there?
a.4 b. 2 c.5 d.8
4. How many options are there in the pane?
a.3 b.6 c.4 d.2
5. Which of the following key is press to save the Database File?
a. Ctrl+S b.Ctrl+V c.Alt+S d.Shift+S
6. How many options are there to create Query on the Task pane of Database?
a.3 b.4 c.2 d.5
7. How many types of filters are there?
a.3 b.4 c.2 d.8
8. Which of the following is used for data processing?
a. StarOfficeWriter b.StarOfficeCalc
c. StarOfficeBase d.StarOfficeImpress
9.Which of the following refers to name of the memory location where the entered data
is stored?
a. Variable b.Constant c.Information d.Entities
10.How many types of data processing?
a.3 b.2 c.4 d.5
11.Spreadsheet file is an example of a which database?
a. Flat-file b.Network c.Relational d.Hierarchial
12.How many field types are in StarOffice Base?
a.13 b.11 c.10 d.20
13.Which key is used to move from one field to next in a database table?
a.Alt b.Shift c.Ctrl d.Tab
14.Which icon is used to do multiple sorting?
a.Sort Ascending b.Sort Descending
c.Sort d.Multiple sort




15.Which of the following is the special views of the data in a table?
a.Sorting b.Filtering c.Queries d.Editing
16.Which of the following filter is a filter used with a condition?
a.Autofilter b.Default filter c.Sort filter d.Standard filter
17.Which of the following is used to add,delete or edit records in the table?
a.Form b.Query c.Reports d.DBMS
18.Which of the following is used to arrange records in alphabetical or numerical order?
a.Sort b.Filter c.Search d.Merge
19.In the paste special dialog box,which is to be selected to copy the cell range in the text
document?
a.DEE Link b.Paste c.Copy d.DDE Link
20.Which of the following includes text,numeric and logical?
a.Field names b.Field types
c.Field properties d.Field length
21.Which database is very powerful?
a.Flat-file b.Hierarchical c.Object-oriented d.Relational
22.Which language using statements that are closer to English than to programming
languages?
a.C b.C++ c.Foxpro d.SQL
23.What does each column in a table represent?
a.Record b.Field c. File d.Table
24.Upto what value does byte datatype accept?
a.1000 b.250 c.1024 d.255




LESSON-8 INTRODUCTION TO MULTIMEDIA
1. Which of the following is widely used to add special effects to movies?
a. softwares b.hardwares c.multimedia d. processor
2. How many image formats are most commonly used?
a. 2 b.5 c.4 d.3
3.Which of the following are the typical examples of static images?
a. photographs b.shockwave files c.MPEG files d.bitmap files
4. Which file creates a perfect reproduction of the original images
a. JPG b.NxView c.shockwave d.GIF
5. How many bit palete is limited to GIF images?
a. 16 b.32 c.8 d.64
6. Which image files are a lossy format?
a. JPEG b. GIF c.MPEG d. Nx View.
7. How many catogeries of image file compressions are there?
a. 4 b.3 c.5 d. 2
8. How many attributes control the characteristics of sound?
a. 2 b.3 c.4 d.5
9. GIF means
a. Graphic interchange file b. Graphic interchange format
c. Graphic information file d. Graphic information format
10.Which of the following are self paced learning aids?
a. CBT/WBT b. CBT/MMS c. WBT/SMS d. MMS/SMS
11.Which is the most common version of e-learning packages?
a. CBT/MMS b. WBT/SMSC c. CBT /WBT d. MMS/SMS
12. Which is also called the frequency?
a. amplitude b. resistance c. pitch d. modulation
13. How many catogories are 2 D animations are classified?
a. 2 b.3 c.4 d. 6
14. Conversion of analog waves to the digital format is called
a . echo b.sound forge c.frequency d.smapling
15.How many step process for creating a 3 D animation?
a.2 b.4 c.3 d.6


LESSON 9. PRESENTATION
1.Which of the following format is selected to save the picture in our presentation?
a. GIF/JPEG b. BMP/GIF c. BMP/JPEG d. GIF/JPG
2.Which of the following resolution is the medium resolution setting?
a. Default b. standard c. Common d. presentation
3. Which of the following view is used to enter notes for individual slides?
a. Normal b. notes c. outline d. handout
4. Which of the following is clicked to define the order in the slideshow?
a. slide show b. view c. custom slide show d. slide sorter
5. Which of the following symbol indicates the position where the slide will be inserted?
a. A vertical black bar b. A vertical line c. A vertical pointer d. A vertical white bar
6. Which of the following is clicked to insert a picture
a. Insert slide b. Insert object c. insert picture d. insert from file
7.Which of the following slider is used to adjust the playback volume?
a. right b. left c. center d. top
8. In which of the following is the current playback position in the file is indicated on
a. right slider b. left slider c. center slider d. top slider
9. Which of the following is clicked from the insert toolbar to insert a picture
a. insert slide b. insert object c. insert picture d. insert from file
10. Which of the following position moves to different position in the file?
a. Position Slider’s b. marker’s c. player’s d. recorder’s
11.Which of the following supports many different media formats?
a. movie player b. media player c. music player d. media playback
12. Which of the following icon turns sound off and on?
a. quiet b. silent c. mute d. voiceless
13. Which of the following is the easiest view type to assign slide transition effect to
slides ?
a. custom b. slide c. slide sorter d. notes
14. How many tabs are there in custom animation window?
a. 4 b.3 c.2 d.1
15. Which of the following adjusts the size of the movie playback?
a. slide b. view c. display d. zoom
16. Which of the following is the shortcut key for stylist?
a. F8 b. F7 c. F5 d. F11
VOLUME 2 : OBJECT TECHNOLOGY
LESSON : I OBJECTED ORIENTED CONCEPTS USING C++
1. In computer, the solutions to the problems are in the form of?
a. programs b. application c. programs or application d. software or hardware
2. Which of the following operates on a set of known input and input data items?
a. computer program b. computer application
c. computer hardware d. computer software
3. Which of the following were used to represent the input and output data items in the
early programming languages?
a. variables b. constants c. operators d. statements
4. Which of the following categorized input data items?
a. constants b. data types c. operators d. statements
4. How many segments were realized when viewing the solution of a problem?
a. six b. four c. eight d. two
5. Which one of the following was realized when viewing the solution of a problem?
a. data b. data and operations c. operations d. program and operation
6. Which one of the following is an example of object oriented programming?
a. BASIC b. C c. Pascal d. C++
7. Which of the following facilitates the way of solving problem by combining data and
operations that are
to be performed on the data?
a. Object oriented programming b. structured programming
c. basic programming d. data programming
8. Which of the following group are termed as ‘object’?
a. data b. operations c. data and operations d. software and hardware
9. Which of the following represent the behaviour of the object?
a. data b. operations c. statements d. expressions
10. Which of the following attempts to capture a real world object in a program?
a. data b. operations c. object d. expressions
11. Which of the following is a group of related functions and data?
a. operations b. programs c. object d. statements
12. Which of the following is a kind of self-sufficient “subprogram” with a specific
functional area?
a. programs b. object c. operations d. expressions



13. Which of the following is the process of grouping data and its related functions into
units?
a. objects b. programs c. encapsulation d. statements
14. In which of the following mechanism by which the data and function are bound
together within an object definition?
a. polymorphism b. inheritance c. encapsulation d. operation
15. Which of the following is the ability of an object to respond differently to different messages?
a. inheritance b. operations c. encapsulation d. polymorphism
16. Which of the following data type represents an object in real world?
a. int b. data c. class d. function
17. Which of the following is a template for entities that have common behaviour?
a. object b. class c. data d. operations
18. Which of the following is the process of acquiring base class properties?
a. inheritance b. functions c. encapsulation d. polymorphism
19. Which of the following increases the functionality of a derived class and promotes reusability of the base class?
a. inheritance b. functions c. encapsulation d. polymorphism
7
TYPE - II
1. Which model entities in the real world?
(a) object (b)class (c)public (d)program
2.What is binding of data and functions called as?
(a) polymorphism (b)encapsulation (c)inheritance (d)object
3.What is the ability of an object to respond differently to different functions called as?
(a) polymorphism (b)encapsulation (c)inheritance (d)object
4.What is the process of creating new data type from the existing data type called?
(a) polymorphism (b)encapsulation (c)inheritance (d)object
5.The solutions to the problems are in which format?
(a) system software (b)application software (c)hardware (d) malware
6. Which provides security to data?
(a) abstraction (b)polymorphism (c)inheritance (d)encapsulation
7.What is the key factor of OOP?
(a) object behavior (b)abstraction (c) inheritance (d) both(b)&(c)



8. Which among the following reduces the complexity of the program?
(a)inheritance (b)function overloading (c)polymorphism (d)encapsulation
9. Which is a self sufficient program with a specified functional area?
(a) Object (b) program (c) sub-program (d) class
10. Which is power packed as they include the functionality of the base class along with
its own unique features?
(a) class (b) base class (c) derived class (d) object
11. Which is a template for entities that have common behavior?
(a) Object (b) class (c)data (d)variable


LESSON 2 : OVE7VIEW OF C++.

1. Which is the smallest unit in a program?
(a) tokens (b)character (c)variable (d)punctuator
2. Which one gives special meaning to the compiler?
(a) constants (b)variable (c)keywords (d)tokens
3. What is the other name for a variable?
(a) constant (b)identifier (c)keyword (d)tokens
4. Which one holds the values or constants in memory boxes?
(a) variable (b)constants (c)keywords (d)punctuators
5. Which is a constant that contains a single character enclosed within single quotes?
(a) floating point (b)numeric (c)character (d)array
6. Which are literals that are treated as array of characters?
(a) graphic (b)non-graphic (c)string (d)character
7. How many operators are classified in C++?
(a) 11 (b)13 (c)14 (d)15
8. What are the kind of data that variables hold in a programming language?
(a) data types (b)variable type (c)constant type (d)conditional type
9.How many c++ data types are broadly classified into?
(a) 2 (b)3 (c)3 (d)4
10. structure,union,class and enumeration belong to which data type?
(a) user defined (b)derived (c)built_in (d)integer
11. Which allows the user to define user defined data type?
(a) type definition (b)identifier (c)data (d)class
12. Which data type allows the user to create a list of identifiers?
(a) int (b)float (c)char (d)enumerated
13.static and register variables are automatically initialized to which value when they
are declared?
(a)1 (b)2 (c)0 (d)3
14.What values auto variables get when undefined?
(a) garbage (b)auto (c)register (d)static
15. Which variables are defined in another program?
(a) auto (b)static (c)extern (d)register
16. By default the local variables belong to which among the following type?
(a) auto (b)static (c)extern (d)register

17. Tab and backspace belong to which type of constants?
(a) escape sequences (b) non graphic character (c)floating (d)integer
18. Which is the most significant bit?
(a) 10 th (b) 13 th (c)15 th (d) 16 th
19. Which type is used to declare a generic pointer?
(a) float (b) void (c)static (d)int
20.What is the range for char data type?
(a) -126 to 127 (b) 128 to -127 (c)-128 to 127 (d)-127 to 128
21.In a 640kb memory size addresses commencing from null and goes on to upto
which limit?
(a) 655358 (b) 655356 (c)655357 (d)655355
22. Addressing is done using which number system?
(a) binary (b)octal (c)hexadecimal (d)decimal
23. What is the minimum value stored in an integer variable?
(a) -32768 (b)32769 (c)-32767 (d)32780
24.How many bits are used to data starting from right extreme?
(a) 15 (b)16 (c)32 (d)64



LESSON 3 : BASIC STATEMENTS
TYPE - I
1. How many types are there for assigning data into the variables in C++?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
2. Which operator is called insertion operator or put to operator?
a. >> b. <<> d. < a =" b"> d = =
7 Which operator is the extraction or get from operator?
a. >> b <<> d >
8 What is called exit check loop?
a. do- while b while c for d if
9 Which is called entry check loop?
a. while b break c for d do
10. cin is a predefined object which corresponds to what standard stream?
a.cin b. cout c. process d input
11 The declarations for the object cin are available in which header file?
a. istream.h b istream c stream.h d stream
12 The header file can be given by using a preprocessor directive which starts with
a. # b $ c / d %
13. Program statements that causes jumps are called as what statements or structures
a. control b assignment c increment d decrement
14. Which statement chooses between 2 alternatives?
a. if-else b if c for d while
15. Which creates branches for multiple alternative sections of code, depending on the value
of a single variable?
a. switch b. if c. for d. while
16. switch expression should be evaluated to what constant?
a.. integer b string c variable d float

TYPE - II
1. How many methods are there for assigning data to the variable in c++?
(a) 2 (b)3 (c)4 (d)5
2. Data is read from key board during run time by using which object/command?
(a) cin (b)cout (c)nic (d) ciin
3. The declarations for the object/command cin is found in which header file?
(a) iostream (b)istream (c)ostream (d)conio
4. The header file can be given by using which preprocessor operator?
(a) # (b)$ (c)/ (d)%
5. Which operator is used for extraction of input?
(a) >> (b)<< (c)? (d)* 6. Which statements causes the jump of control? (a) relational (b)logical (c)control (d)pointers 7. Which statement creates branches for multiple alternatives section of codes depending upon value of single variable? (a) if-else (b)if (c)switch (d)for 8. switch expression should be evaluated to which constant only? (a) integer (b)string (c)variable (d)float 9. Which looping statement executes itself at least once even though the condition may be false? (a) while (b)for (c) do-while (d)if 10. How many kinds of loops are there in c++? (a) 1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4 11. Which loop is repeated for a predefined number of times? (a) for (b)nestled (c)if (d)switch 12. What is a loop embedded within a loop called as? (a) Nestled loop (b)loop (c)continue loop (d)Rehearsal loop 13. What are the two types of loops? (a) exit check, entry check (b) entry check, while loop (c) for loop, while loop (d) do while , if 14. Which file comprises of all standard declarations and definitions for pre defined functions? (a) iostream (b) conio (c) header (d) constream 15 What executes a set of instructions repeatedly for a certain number of times? a. loop b if c if- then d switch 16. If a given condition true in if- else statement then what followed by block of statements are executed? a. if b else c then d for LESSON 4 : FUNCTIONS 1. What are the building blocks of C++ programs? (a) Functions (b) header (c) compiler (d)commands 2. Which is the starting point for the execution of program? (a) main( ) (b)void (c)int (d)array 3. Which statement marks the end of the function and also transfers the control to the statement after call statement? (a) return (b)go to (c)continue (d)break 4. The main purpose of function prototype is to help what to check the data requirement of the functions? (a) Compiler (b) interpreter (c) linker (d) object 5. What are the channels through which data flows from call statement to function and vice versa? (a) Parameters (b) Functions (c) Return (d) Parenthesis 6. In call by value method the flow of data is from which statement to function definition? (a) call (b)return (c)function (d)go to 7. In which method any change in the formal parameters s not reflected back to actual parameter? (a)call by value (b)call by reference (c)call (d)return 8. In which method the called function arguments-formal parameters become alias to the actual parameters in the calling function? (a) call by value (b)call by reference (c)call (d)return 9. In which method any change made in the formal parameter is reflected back in the actual parameter? (a) call by value (b)call by reference (c)call (d)return 10. What is the function declared as when it returns no value? (a) inline (b)void (c)static (d)public 11. Which is used to a function that can be called or invoked from another function? (a) function type (b) function prototype (c)function name (d)template 12. Whicf of the following is used to separate a set of actual parameters in a function? (a) , (b) ; (c) # (d)& 13. How many ways the function can be invoked in C+? (a) 3 (b)4 (c)2 (d)6 14. What are the parameters associated with call statement called as? (a) Actual (b)formal (c)function (d)arguments 15. What are the parameters associated with header called as? (a) function (b)actual (c)formal (d)arguments 16. Which of the following directly inserts the code into the calling program? (a) outline (b)inline (c)cin (d)parameters 17. Which of the following is the default data type of a function if no data is explicitly mentioned? (a) int (b)char (c) float (d) double 18. Which operator reveals the hidden scope of the variable? (a) assignment (b)binary c) relational (d) scope 19. Which scope is extended to the function block and all sub blocks? (a) function (b)local (c) file (d) class 20. Which variable is destroyed upon the exit of its block? (a) function (b)file (c)local (d)class 21. How many types of scopes are there in c++? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 22. Which of the following refers to the accessibility of a variable? (a) scope (b)stacks (c)storage class (d)functions 23. Which of the following induces reusability of the code? a. statements (b)tokens (c)functions (d)data types Lesson 5 : STRUCTURED DATA TYPES – ARRAYS 1. Which is a collection of variables of the same type that are referenced by a common name? (a) variable (b) constant (c) array d) program 2. Arrays are of how may types? a. 3 b. 4 c. 2 d. 1 3. Which dimensional array comprising of elements each of which is itself a one dimensional array? a. single b. two c. three d. multi 4. int num_array [5]; in this array how many integer values can be stored? a. 4 b. 5 6 d. 1 5) Each element of the Array is accessed by the name and its a. array b. variable c. dimensional d. subscript 6. The size of the array should always be a. positive b. negative c. whole number d. real number 7. Which are otherwise called as literals. a. strings b. constants c. variables d. data 8. A character array should be terminated with a what character? a. ‘0’ b. ‘\0’ c. ‘0/’ d. /0, 9. Which is a member function of standard istream ? a. getline ( ) b. get ( ) c. getsline ( ) d. line ( ) 10 Rearranging the data given in array either in ascending or descending order is called a. merging b. sorting c. ascend d. descend 11. How many parameters are required for write function? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five 12) Which acts as the string terminator? a. null b. string c. int d. float 13) When elements are stored columnwise manner it is called as what order? a. column-major b. row-major c. row d. column 14) The sub script always commences from a. one b. two c. three d. zero 15) String manipulators are defined in which header file. a. string.h b. string c. st.h d. std.h 16) Which function copies source string to target string? a. strcpy ( ) b. str ( ) c. scpy ( ) d. stcp ( ) 17) Which function compares the two given strings? a. strcmp ( ) b. strcp ( ) c. stcp ( ) d. stcmp ( ) 18) Which is a member function of standard output stream i.e., ostream.? a. write ( ) b. print ( ) c. writes ( ) d. reads ( ) 19) Which function returns the number of characters stored in the array. a. strlen ( ) b. str ( ) c. stlen ( ) d. strlength ( ) 20) Which dimensional array comprising of finite homogeneous elements? a. one b. two c. multi d. three 21) cin>> number [4]; in this array processing, it reads the which element?
a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 7
22) Which is a set of mn numbers arranged in the form of a rectangular array of m rows and n
columns.
a. matrix b. determinant c. array d. row
23) If the elements are stored in rowwise manner it is called as which order.
a. row-major b. column-major c. row d. column
24. Which dimensional array is an array in which each element is itself an array?
a. two b. three c. four d. one
25) All member functions of a class, should be accessed through which class?
a. object b. instance c. a and b d. function







LESSON 6 : CLASSES AND OBJECTS
1. Which of the following is a way to bind the data associated functions together?
a. class b. data c. function d. methods
2. Which one of the following language has features of classes?
a. BASIC b. C c. C++ d. None
3. Which paves for encapsulation?
a. class b. objects c. data d. none of these
4. What are functions called in C++ ?
a. Defenitions b. Concepts c. Organizers d. Methods
5. Which of the following is a user defined data type?
a. Class b. Object c. Public d. Protected
6. How is a declaration of a class member declared ?
a. within class b. outside the class
c. inside or outside the class d. separately in another class
7. How many access specifier does the class body have ?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
8. What are class access specifier known as ?
a. Specifications b. Class depth
c. Visibility labels d. Class visibility specifications
9. Which of the following is not a class specifier?
a. private b. public c. protected d. unprotected
10. What are members called in a class data ?
a. abstracts b. properties c. attributes d. dimensions
11. What is :: ?
a. Short circuit AND b. Short circuit OR c. Not operator d. Scope resolution operator
12. What does OOP stand for ?
a. Object oriented process b. Online Object Programming
c. Object Oriented Programming d. Object to Object Programming
13. What are the functions that perform specific tasks in a class ?
a. Data members b. Member functions c. Concrete functions d. Data functions
14. How are the members of the class accessed ?
a. using new operator b. using size of operator
c. using dot operator d. using + operator




15. What does data hiding refers to?
a. member and function of a class are not accessible by members of outside class
b. declaring members as public
c. not specifiying members and functions of a class
d. not giving names to data
16. What is binding of data and functions together into a single entity is known as ?
a. Inheritance b. Polymorphism c. Overloading d. Encapsulation
17. class xyz
{
int x, y;
}
What is x & y in the above code ?
a. methods b. attributes c. properties d. dimensions
18. class student
{
int x,y;
} S1, S2;
What is S1 and S2 are in the above code ?
a. objects of class student b. similar class of student
c. super class of student d. sub class of student
19.
class example
{
int x,y,z:
float m, n;
} p [4];
How many objects of p can be defined?
a. 3 b. 4
c. 5 d. 1
20. How the data can be accessed?
a. by a function b. only by friend functions
c. only by member functions of the own class
d. only by member functions of its own class and friend functions









21. What does the members defined in the class behave like?
a. public b. friend c. inline d. none
22. What data members of a class are shared by all objects of that class ?
a. inline b. Private c. static d. Public
23. When objects of a class are created , separate memory is allocated for
a. members function only b. member variables only
c. both d. none
24. What can return type of data can be ?
a. C++ data type b. Object data c. Both d. none
25. In C++ , class variables are known as
a objects b. data c. private d. code





LESSON-7. POLYMORPHISM

1. Which of the following operator can be overloaded?
a. Size of () b.:: c.Membership operator d.plus
2. Which of the following cannot be overloaded?
a. + b.++ c.-- d.::
3. When overloading operators ,the overloaded operator must have
a. all the operands of user defined type b. at least one operand of user defined type
c. all the operands of C++ data type d. none of the above
4. Which of the following is a return type of overloaded functions?
a. must be same b. must be different c. may or may not be same d. none
5. The operator function must be
a. a member function b. a friend function c. either member or friend function d. none
6. Which of the following is the meaning for polymorphism?
a. Single form b. many forms c. two forms d. many programs
7. Polymorphism is achieved through
a. heritance b. encapsulation c. overloading d. poly programming
8. Which of the following can be defined as the ability of a function to process the
message or data in more than one form?
a. Function overloading b. Function type c. Recursive type d. Inline function
9. Each overloading must differ
a. by number of argument b. type of argument
c. either by number of formal parameters or data type of arguments d. none
10. While invoking functions ,if C++ compiler does not find exact match of the function
call statement then
a. it will ignore the function call b. generates an error
c. deletes the function d. looks for the next nearest match
11. During integral promotion, a char data type can be converted to
a. Integer b. Float c. Double d. all the above
12.During integral promotion , a float data type can be converted to
a. integer b. double c. char d. all the above








13. During integral promotion, a double data type can be converted to
a. float b. integer c. Float or integer d. none
14.Which of the following is the use for Strcat()?
a. String calculation b. string concatenation c. String comparison d. substring
15.Operator overloading
a. does not overrule the original definition of the operator
b. overrules original definition
c. changes original definition d. All of these
16.When binary operators are overloaded
a. the left hand object must be an object of the relevant class
b. the right hand object must be an object of the relevant class
c. both the right and left objects must be an object of the relevant class
d. none
17.The functionality of operator like ‘+’ can be extended using
a. Operator precedence b. operator overloading c. operator definition d. none




LESSON – 8 : CONSTRUCTORS & DESTRUCTORS
1. When an instance of a class comes into scope, which function is executed?
(a) Destructor (b) Constructor (c) inline (d) friend
2. Which function gets executed when a class object goes out of scope?
(a) Destructor (b) Constructor (c) Inline (d) Friend
3. Which one of the following is a constructor?
a) same as class name (b) Same as one of the member function
c) same as object name (d) none of the given
4. Which one of the following is the name of a destructor?
a) Must be same as object name (b) Must be same as member function name
c) Must be same as class name (d) can be any name
5. Which one of the following is false?
a) Constructor and destructor have same name b) Class and constructor have same name
c) Class name and destructor have same name with a prefix ~ character
d) Constructor and member function have same name
6. Which of the following is automatically executed when an object is created?
(a) Constructor (b) Destructor (c) Member functions (d) None of the given
7. Which one of the following is true?
a. Destructors can be overloaded b. Constructors can be overloaded
c. Constructors cannot be overloaded as they are special functions
d. Both constructors and destructors cannot be overloaded
8. Which one of the following does not return any value?
Member functions (b) Inline functions
(c) Friend functions (d) Constructors and Destructors
9. Which of the following is true?
a) Compiler generates a constructor in the absence of user defined constructor
b) Compiler does not generate a constructor at all
c) Compiler generated constructor, overrides user defined constructor
d) Compiler generates more than one constructor for a class
10. Which of the following prototype can be a copy constructor of a class ‘myclass’?
a) myclass (int myclass); b) int copy (myclass mc);
c) myclass copy (myclass a); d) myclass (myclass &x);





11. Which one of the following is not true?
(a) copy constructor is invoked when an object is passed as a parameter to a member
function
copy constructor is invoked whenever an object is created
The constructor is invoked when a member function returns an object
Copy constructor is invoked when an object is passed by reference to constructor
12. Which of the following is true?
a) A constructor can have parameter list b) The constructor function can not be overloaded
c) The destructor function can be overloaded d) All the given are true
13. Which of the following is true?
A destructor cannot have arguments b) A destructor can have arguments
A destructor must have same arguments that of constructor
None of the above is true
14. Which of the following has no return type and cannot be overloaded?
constructor (b) Member function (c) Destructor (d) Inline function
15.Which one of the following is automatically executed when the control reaches the end
of class scope?
a. constructor (b) Destructor (c) Member function (d) Inline function
16. Which of the following is a destructor name?
a) same as class name b) same as any other member function name
c. same as class name prefixed by tilde(~) character d) None of the above
17. A copy constructor is invoked when
a) an object is passed as a parameter to any of the member function
b) a member function returns an object
c) an object is passed by reference to constructor
d) all of the above











LESSON : 9 INHERITANCE
1. Which of the following is a process of creating new classes called derived classes from
existing classes?
a. Encapsulation (b) Polymorphism (c) Inheritance (d) none of the given
2. The class created from an existing base class is called
Second class (b) new class (c) Rich Class (d) Derived class
3. The class from which derived class is created is called?
Base class (b) Power packed class (c) superior class (d) Family class
4. In real life children acquire the features of their parents in addition to their unique
features. Which of the following terms refers this?
Encapsulation (b) Polymorphism (c) inheritance (d) Encapsulation
5. Reusability code, code sharing, consistency of interface are all the advantages of?
(a) Inheritance (b) Polymorphism (c) Overloading (d) Encapsulation
6. Which of the following is true?
a) Base class inherits properties from derived class
Derived class inherits properties from base class
Derived class doesn’t inherit any properties from base class.
Both a and b are true.
7. Which of the following derives a new class “sub_class” from the base class
“main_class”?
a) class main_class: public sub_class b) class sub_class: public main_class
c)class main_class: class sub_class d) class sub_class: public main_class
8. What is wrong with the following statement that derives a B_class from A_class?
“class B_class ; public B_class”
a. Semicolon (;) must be replaced by colon (:)
b. Semicolon (;) must appear at the end of the statement
c. The word public must be replaced by private
d. The word public must be replaced by protected
9. class xclass: public yclass
from the above statement which of the following is true?
a. class is the base class b. yclass is the base class
c. yclass is derived from xclass d. yclass is derived class
10. Private, public and protected are all
a. C++ variables (b) Control structures of C++
c. Access specifier (d) Derived class members
11. Which is the default visibility mode while inheriting members of a base class?
a. private (b) Protected (c) public (d) extended public

LESSON 10 : IMPACT OF COMPUTERS ON SOCIETY
1 Which of the following has changed our life style?
(a) Browsing (b)e-mail (c)Chat (d)All the three
2 Which of the following enables data storage and management?
(a) LCD screen (b)Picture phone (c)Archive unit (d)Speakers
3 Which technical elements we need to reach out the benefits of IT to the common
man?
(a) Connectivity (b) Affordable computers (c)Software (d)All the three
4 What is the purpose of personal archives?
(a) To store personal treasure (b)To store personal details
(c)Print personal data (d) Print other data
5. What does CBT stand for?
(a) Computer based tutorials (b) Computer based teaching
(c)Computer based techniques (d) Computer bullet in table
6. What facilitates remote diagnostic?
(a) ATM (b)e-learning (c)Internet (d)none of the above
7. Which is a picture based personal telephone directory?
(a) Picture phone and pad (b)Personal archives (c)emotion container (d)archive unit
8. Which can function as electronic pets?
(a) archive units (b)memo pads (c)ceramic audio (d)robots
9. Which enables us to withdraw money from our account in a particular bank anytime
and anywhere
(a) ATM (b) archives (c) picture phone and pad (d)memo frame
10. In which of the following rooms mirrors, medical box and special speakers are
located of a computerized home?
(a) kitchen (b) bed room (c) bathroom (d) kids room
11 What are mounted on the wall to provide better effect and save floor space?
(a) LCD screen (b) camera (c) speakers (d) all the given
12 Which feature allows to sing along with audio coming from the original source
(a) Kara -oke (b) memo frame (c)projection TV (d) interactive table cloth
13. Which permits banking from the comfort of the home by using internet facilities?
(a)ATM (b)e-banking (c)memo frame (d)none of the given
14. Which enables online educational programs leading to degrees and certifications
(a)e-shopping (b)e-banking (c)e-commerce (d)e-learning


15. What means easy interaction with other people through touch screen, scanner , and
microphone facilities?
(a) memo frame (b) bookshelf (c)archive units (d) kara-oke
16. 85% of computer usage is
(a) word processing (b)graphic (c)animation (d)presentation
17. In a computerized homes which of the following rooms have LCD screens, archive
unit, archive unit, emotional containers etc?
(a) living room (b)kids room (c)home office (d) bed room
18. Which is the small compartment with a screen , speaker, and a scent to derive
emotional comfort?
(a) archive unit (b) picture phone (c)emotion container (d)book shelf



CHAPTER 11 : IT ENABLED SERVICES
1. ITES stands for
a) Improving technology enlighted services
b) Information technology enabled services
c) Information technology extended services
d) information technology entrusted systems
2. Which of the following is an IT enabled service?
(a) e-governance (b) word processor (c) spreadsheet (d) database
3. Which of the following is not an IT enabled service?
(a) call centers (b) e-governance (c) data digitization (d) word processor
4. Name the which device which converts the speech into a letter.
(a) microphone (b) gramaphone (c) Dictaphone (d) autophone
5.which of the following is sometimes defined as a telephone based shared service?…
(a) data digitization (b) call center (c) data management (d) bar code recognition
6. Collection , digitization and processing of data is basic function of
(a) call center (b) data management (c) e-governance (d) data collection
7. Which of the following is not an ITES of data management category?
a) data entry b) decentralization c) Processing of data d) data collection
8. BPO stands for
a. Business Process Outsourcing b. Bank Program Output
c. Business Program Online d. Business Program output
9. Which is the key for effective and profitable use of IT in organizations.
a. Datamanagement b. Dataprocessing c. Data accumulation d. All
10. Which is the important aspect ensured by the ITES provider?
a. Data security b. Data privacy c. Customer privacy d. Both a & c



CHAPTER 12 : COMPTUER ETHICS
1. During World War II, Computer ethics has its roots in the work of
a) Charles Babbage (b) Blaise Pascal
(c) Norbert Wiener (d) Herman Horllerith
2. Who among the following began to examine unethical and illegal uses of computers
by computer professionals in mid 1960s in Menlo park, California?
a) Donn Parker (b) Norbert Wiener (c) Bill Gates (d) Charles Babbage
3. Which is a set of rules for determining moral standards or socially acceptable
behaviour?
a) Strandard (b) Ethics (c) Protocol (d) None of The given
4. General Guidelines of computer ethics are needed for
a) protection of personal data (b) computer crime
(c) cracking (d) all the above
5. The protection of hardware, facilities magnetic disks, and other illegally accessed,
stolen, damaged or destroyed items refers to
a) Physical security (b) personal security
(c) personnel security (d) None of The given
6. Which refers to software setups that permit only authorized access to the system?
(a) Physical security (b) personal security
(c) personnel security (d) None of The given
7. Which refers to protecting data and computer system against dishonesty or negligence
of employees.
a) Physical security (b) personal security (c) personnel security (d) None of The given
8 Which is any illegal activity using computer software, data or access as the object,
subject or instrument of the crime
a) Virus (b) Copy right (c) negligence (d) computer crime
9. Making and using duplicate hardware and software is called
a) Copy right (b) free copy (c) Piracy (d) none of these
10. Which is a self-replicating program that can be used to damage data and files stored
on your computer?
a) Piracy (b) Freeware (c) Virus (d) None of The given
11.Running other software on an idle computer without the knowledge of the organization is called theft of
a) Computer Time (b) Use (c) Computer (d) Software
12. Which is the illegal access to the network or computer system?
(a) Piracy (b) Virus (c) Cracking (d) Security


QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE :
I. Choose the correct answer :
1. StarOffice is an application that is designed to work on different
A) Software B) Operating Systems C) Setting D) All the above
2. Which may contain text, tables, graphs, charts, equations, pictures and drawings?
A) Document B) Slides C) Templates D) Wizards
3. Which one is not a StarOffice components?
A) StarOfficeWriter B) StarOfficeCalc C) StarOfficeBase D) WordStar
4. In StarOfficeWriter, Which key should be pressed only at the end of a paragraph or
when a blank line is to be inserted?
A) Tab B) BackSpace C) Enter D)None
5. Which is the keyboard shortcut for saving the document?
A) Ctrl + Z B) Ctrl + S C) Ctrl + A D) F9
6. In StarOfficeWriter,while working with multiple documents to switch between
documents, the menu used is
A) File B) Tools C) Format D) Window
7. In StarOfficeWriter, the thick horizontal line in the page area is called
A) End-of-document-marker B) Centre line C) page Line D) None
8. In StarOfficeWriter to move insertion pointer one cell to the left in a table through
keyboard the key combination used is
A) Arrow B) Tab C) Up Arrow D)Shift + Tab
9. In StarOfficeWriter to move the current cursor position to End of the document, the
key combination used is
A) Ctrl + Home B) Ctrl + End C) Ctrl + A D)Ctrl + S
10. Scrolling a document does not move the
A) End of file B) Beginning of the file C) Insertion Point D) All the above
11. Which key deletes the characters to the left of the insertion point?
A) Delete B) Ctrl + D C) Backspace D) All the above
12. When a new text is typed if the existing text to the right of the insertion point
disappears then the user is in which mode?
A) Insertion B) Type-over C) User-define D) Insert
13. The user can toggle between type-over mode and the insert mode using the
A) DeleteKey B) F3 Key C) Ctrl + O Key D)Insert Key
14. The key pressed down and the movement key used to highlight the required text is
A) Ctrl B) Alt C) Shift D)All the above
15. To select the particular line in StarOfficeWriter.
A) Click once next to the line B) Ctrl + A
C) Double click on the Line D) Edit -> select Line
16. The Shortcut key Ctrl + V is used to
A) Copy B) Cut C) Paste D) None
17. In Find & Replace dialogbox, The button used to replace without confirmation is
A) Replace B) Search for C) Replace with D) Replace all
18. Almost all the formatting options are available under the
A) Format Menu B) Tools C) File Menu D) Edit Menu
19. Which is a set of characters and numbers in a certain style?
A) Word B) Font C) Commands D) Style
20. Which can be used to call attention to key ideas or pointers in a document?
A) Highlighting B) Indenting C) Formatting D) Both A & B
21. Which option from the Paragraph dialogbox can be used to indent the line of the
paragraph?
A) From Left B) From Right C) First Line D) Line spacing
22. The default line spacing in the StarOfficeWriter is
A) 1.5 lines B) Double C) Proportional D) Single
23. Which of the following provides various styles for the bullets and numbers?
A) Edit Menu B) Tools Menu C) Format Menu D) Window Menu
24. Which helps in providing the document more readability?
A) Indentation B) Spacing C) Formating D)All the above
25. StarOfficeWriter compares each word typed with the words in the dictionary and
underlines words that do not match with a
A) squiggy blue line B) squiggly red line
C) squiggly line D) none of the above
26. In StarOfficeWriter, The key pressed to check the spelling is
A) F3 B) F6 C) F8 D) F7
27. Which button is to be clicked to add the word to the dictionary in the Spelling Dialog
box?
A) Add B) New C)Entry D)Modify
28. The option useful for correcting the spelling of the commonly misspelled word is
A) Auto Type B) Auto Correct C)Add to dictionary D) None

29. The button is used to skip the spelling changes for the current word
A) Skip B) Ignore C) Skip All D) Ignore Once
30. From the last row of the table, the simplest way to add a row is
A) Insert B) Enter C) F9 D) Tab
31. Which is the intersection of a column and row?
A) Table B) Cell C) Field D) None
32. To make all columns even, a right click is made inside the table and from the pop-
upmenu, select Column
A) Space-> Equals B)Space -> Equally C) Space->equal D) SpaceEqually
33. The default left and bottom margins are
A) 1.25 and 1 B)1 and 1 C)1.25 and 1.25 D)1 and 1.25
34. If the user is not having the exact value for the margins then the Ruler option can be
used to change the margins from the
A) View Menu B)Edit Menu C) Format Menu D)Ruler View
35. The length of a document will be more than the width then the orientation is called
A) Landscape B)Portrait C) Page Orientation D)None
36. Which option is used to change the paper size in Page style dialogbox?
A) PaperFormat B)Page layout C)Paper source D) PageFormat
37. The required footer style is selected from the list of styles in the
A) Format Combo box B)Page style Box C) Frame D)None of the above
38. In StarOfficeWriter, Insert -> Fields -> Page Number will insert the page numbers on
A) every pages B) odd pages C) even pages D) last page only
39. What is the Tool used to Draw in Staroffice?
A) StarPaint B)Ms-Paint C)StarDraw D)StarOfficeDraw
40. Which command is used to open StarOfficeWriter?
A) Start -> File -> Text B)File -> New -> TextDocumnet
C) Start -> AllPrograms -> StarOffice8 D)Start -> File -> Save









STAROFFICECALC

1. The number of rows in Visicalc is
A) 254 B) 512 C) 256 D) 3200
2. The bar, which displays the current cell and its contents is
A) Function B) Formula C) Object D) Main tool bar
3. The function key is used to edit the contents of the cell is
A) F5 B) F2 C) F7 D) F8
4. Which of the following sign is used to a cell address can be made absolute?
A) # B) @ C) = D) $
5. The combined cell column and row headings are known as the cells
A) pointer B) Address C) Range D) Reference
6. The number of icons present in the insert object floating toolbar is
A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8
7. The function of Ctrl + Shift + J is for getting the
A) Full screen B) Maximized screen C) minimized screen D) Restored Screen
8. The sheet separator symbol is
A) ; (Semicolon) B) : (Colon) C) , (Comma) D) . (Dot)
9. Which of the following does not allow performing calculations?
A) Label B) date C) time D) formula
10. Which of the following bars have shortcut icons for frequently done tasks?
A) Formula bar & Address bar B) Function bar & Address bar
C) Address bar & Toolbar bar D) Function bar & Object bar











ANSWERS :
VOLUME : TOOLS STAROFFICE
LESSON 1:
1. b 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. c
13. d 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. b 24 .d 25. b

LESSON 2:
1. d 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. c
13. c 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. a 20. c

LESSON 3:
1. d 2. d 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. d
13. c 14. c

LESSON 4:
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. c
13. b 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. c

LESSON 5:
1. a 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. d
13. c 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. d

LESSON 6:
1. a 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. c 12. b
13. c 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. b

LESSON 7:
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. d
13. d 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. a 19. a 20. b 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. c





LESSON 8:
1. c 2. a 3. a 4. b 5.c 6.a 7.d 8.a 9. b 10. a 11. c 12. c
13. a 14. d 15. c

LESSON 9:
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. b 12. c
13. b 14. a 15. d 16.d


VOLUME – II OBJECT TECHNOLOGY

LESSON 1: TYPE - I
1. c 2.a 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. c
13. b 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. a

LESSON 1: TYPE - II
1. a 2.b 3. a 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. b

LESSON 2:
1. a 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. a
13. c 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. a 24. a

LESSON : 3 TYPE - I
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. a
13. a 14. a 15. a 16. a

LESSON : 3 TYPE - II
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. a
13. a 14. a 15. a 16. a


LESSON 4:
1. a 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. a
13. c 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. c

LESSON 5:
1. c 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. a 12. a
13. a 14. d 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. c
25. c

LESSON 6:
1. a 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. c 9. d 10. c 11. d 12. c
13. b 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. c
25. a

LESSON 7:
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. a
13. b 14. d 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. c

LESSON 8:
1. b 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. d 12. a
13. a 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. d

LESSON 9:
1. c 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. b 10. c 11. a

LESSON : 10
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. a
13. b 14. d 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. c

LESSON : 11
1. b 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. d

LESSON : 12
1. c 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. c

Sunday, May 31, 2009

chemistry one marks


1. ATOMIC STRUCTURE - II

En = 313.6/n2, If the value of Ei = -34.84 to which value ‘n’ corresponds ____
a. 4        b.3        c. 2            d.1                        (b)
Dual character  of an electron was explained by ___________
a. Bohr        b. Heisenberg    c. de-Broglie        d.Pauli            (c)
De-Broglie equation is ___________
a. l= mv / h        b. l = hmv        c. l = hv / m        d. l = h/ mv            (d)
The value of Bohr radius for hydrogen atom is ____________
a. 0.529 x 10-8 cm    b. 0.529 x 10-10 cm    c. 0.529 x 10-6 cm    d. 0.529 x 10-12 cm        (a)
Which of the following particle having same kinetic energy, would have the maximum
de- Broglie wavelength__________
       a. a particles        b. proton    c.b particles    d. neutron                (c)
If the energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of H – atom is E, what is the energy of the electron in the Bohr’s first orbit?
a. 2 E        b. –4 E        c. –2 E        d. 4 E                (b)
The energy of electron in an atom is given by En = __________
a. -4π2 me4 /n2 h2     b. -2π2 me2/n2 h2    c. -2π2 me4 /n2 h2    d. -2π me4 /n2 h2        (c)

The bond order of oxygen molecule is _________
a. 2.5         b. 1        c. 3        d. 2                        (d)
The hybridization in SF6 molecule is ______________
a. sp3            b. sp3 d2    c. sp3 d        d. sp3 d3            (b)
 The intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in _____________    
a. o – nitrophenol    b. m – nitrophenol    c. p  – nitrophenol    d. None            (a)
The de-Broglie’s concept can be applied not only to __________ but also to other particles like neutrons, protons, atoms, molecules etc.
a. compounds    b. electrons    c. matter     d. radioactive elements            (b)
The _____________ orbital is symmetrical about Z – axis
a. d        b. dxy        c. dyz        d. dz2                            (d)
 bond order = ____________
a. ½ (Nb – Na)        b. ½ Nb    c. Nb        d Nb - Na                (a)
The sidewise or lateral overlap of atomic orbitals give __________ bonds
a.pi        b. chemical        c. covalent        d. sigma                (a)


2. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION – II
The value of C – C distance found experimentally in a saturated hydrocarbon is ________
a. 1.34 A        b. 1.36 A        c. 1.54 A        d. 1.56 A            (c)
On moving down the group the radius of an ion ______________
a. decreases        b. increases     c. no change    d. none of these        (b)
Effective nuclear charge (Z*) can be calculated by using the formula _______
a. Z* = Z – S     b. Z* = Z + S         c. Z* = S –  Z    d. Z = Z* – S                (a)
Pick the correct statement
a.    carbon having more nuclear charge than boron
b.    the size of carbon atom is larger than boron
c.    carbon forms electron deficient compounds
d.    carbon forms ionic compounds                            (a)
Comparing the ionization energy of fluorine with carbon, fluorine has ______
a. higher ionisation energy        b. lower ionisation energy
c. same ionisation energy        d. None of these                    (a)
Among the following which has the maximum ionization energy
a. alkali metals        b. alkali elements    c. halogens        d. noble gases    (d)
the electron affinity of an atom ___________
a. directly proportional to its size     b. inversely proportional to its size
c. is independent of its size         d. none of these                    (b)
Among the following which has higher electron affinity value _______
a. Fluorine    b. Chlorine         c. Bromine     d. Iodine                    (b)
The scale which is based on empirical relation between the energy of a bond and the electro negativities of bonded atoms is _____________
a. Pauling method  b.mulliken’s scale  c. Sanderson’s scale d. Alfred & Rochow’s scale (a)
electron affinity is expressed in ______________
a. kJ        b.J        c. kJ mol    d.kJ mol-1                        (d)
The bond length of chlorine molecule is ___________
a. 0.74        b. 1.44        c. 1.98        d. 2.28            (c)
12.The order of ioinisation energy _________
a s. < p < d < f        b. s > p > d > f    c. s > d > p > f    d. s < d < p < f    (b)





13. Across the period electron affinity ____________
a. decreases    b. increases    c. decreases and then increases    
d. increases and then decreases                                (b)
   14. Noble gases have ____________ electron affinity
a. high        b. low        c. zero        d. very low                (c)
15. When XA >> XB    then A – B bond is ___________
a. polar covalent        b. non polar covalent    c. ionic     d. metallic        (c)
16. Which one of the following elements has the highest  value for electron affinity
a. oxygen        b. fluorine        c. aluminium        d. lithium            (b)
   17. atomic radius ___________
a. inceases down the group        b. decreases down the group
c. increases along the period        d. is not a periodic property            (a)
 18.The unit of ionization potential is ___________
a. kJ        b.kJ/kg    c. J/ g        d. kJ / mol                        (d)
19. The electronic configuration of copper is ____________
a. [Ar], 4s2,3d9        b. [Ar], 4s1,3d10    c. [Ar], 4s0,3d10 4p1    d. [Ar], 4s2,3d9 4p1    (b)
Which one of the following bonds is the strongest
a. H –F        b. H – Cl        c. H - Br        d. H – I            (a)    















3. p – BLOCK ELEMENTS
Which of the following does not belong the group 13?
a. B        b. Al        c. Ge        d. In                            (c)
Which of the following is most abundant in earth’s crust?
a. C        b. Si        c. Ge        d. Sn                            (b)
The metalloid among the following is ____________
a. C        b. P        c. Ge        d. Sn                            (c)
Which of the following does not exhibit allotropy?
a. C        b. Si        c. Sn        d. Pb                            (d)
Which one of the following is a three dimensional silicate ?
a. talc        b. beryl        c. quartz        d. kaoline                (c)
Which one shows most pronounced inert pair effect?
a. Si        b. Sn            c. Pb            d. C                    (c)
Which element is kept in water?
a. P        b. Na            c. S            d.Si                    (a)
8. An element which was burnt in limited supply of air to give oxide A which on treatment with water gives an acid B, Acid B on heating gives acid C which gives yellow precipitate with AgNO3 solution A is ___________
a. So2        b. NO2            c. P2O3            d.SO3            (c)
9.       The compound with garlic odour is ____________
a. P2 O3        b. P2 O5            c. H3 PO3        d. H3 PO4        (a)    
The shape of PCl5 is ___________
a. pyramidal        b. trigonal bipyramidal    c. linear    d. tetrahedral        (b)
The member of chalcogen family which can exhibit the oxidation state of + 2 as well as – 2 is are
a. O2 only        b. S only        c. both O2 and S    d. Se only        (c)
Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur, yet H2S is acidic while H2O is neutral.  This is because
a.    H2O is a higly associated compound
b.    H – S bond is weaker than H – O bond
c.    H2s is a gas while H2O is a liquid
d.    The molecular weight of H2S is more than that of water            (b)

The compound used as smoke screen _________
a. PCl3        b. PCl5        c. PH3            d. H3 PO3                (c)
Oxygen exhibits positive oxidation
a. fluorine        b. bromine        c. chlorine        d. iodine            (a)
Which shows only – 1 oxidation state?
a. fluorine        b. bromine        c. chlorine        d. iodine            (a)
One can draw the map of building on a glass plate by _____________
a. HI            b. HF        c. HBr        d. HCl                        (b)
Among the halogen acid, the weakest acid is _____________
a. HF        b. HCl            c. HBr        d. HI                        (a)
Halogens belong to the group number____________
a. 14        b. 15            c. 17            d. 18                    (c)
The noble gases are unreactive because they
a. have same number of electrons        b. have an atomicity of one
c. are gases with low densities        d. have stable electronic configuration        (d)
The shape of XeF4 is _______________
a. tetrahedral        b. octahedral        c. square planar        d. pyramidal        (c)
Which is not known ?
a. XeF6            b. XeF4        c. XeO3            d. ArF6        (c)
The lightest gas which is non – inflammable is ____________
a. He            b. H2            c. N2                d. Ar            (a)
Which of the following has highest first ionization energy?
a. He            b. Ne            c. Ar                d. Kr                  (a)
Aqueous solution of aluminum sulphate is ______________
a. acidic            b.basic        c. neutral        d. amphoteric        (a)
The formula of galena is _____________
a. PbS            b. PbCO3        c. PbSO4        d. PbO            (a)
White phosphorus is stored under _______________
a. kerosene        b. water        c. alcohol        d. benzene            (b)
The general electronic configuration of 17th group elements is ______
a.ns2, np2        b. ns2, np3        c. ns2, np4        d. ns2, np5            (d)
There are __________ types of interhalogen compounds .
a.two            b. three        c. four            d. five                (c)
P2O3 has ___________ odour
a. garlic            b. rotten egg        c. foul            d. rotten fish                    (a)                                






























4. d – BLOCK ELEMENTS

The general electronic configuration of d – block elements is
a.  (n-1) d1 – 10 nsn – 2        b. (n – 1) d1 – 5 ns2     c.(n – 1)d0ns1         d. None of these        (a)
Formation of coloured ions is possible when compounds contain
a. paired electrons    b. unpaired electrons    c. lone pairs of electrons    d. none    (b)
Paramagnetism is common in
a. p – block elements      b. d – block elements  c. s – block elements  d. f – block elements   (b)
The colour of Ti(H2O)63+  ion is due
a. d – d transistion                b. Presenece of water molecules    
c. Inter atomic transfer of electrons        d. None of the above                (a)
The electronic configuration of chromium is
a. 3d64s0        b. 3d54s1        c. 3d44s2            d. 3d64s24p1        (b)
Paramagnetism is the property of
a. paired electrons        b. completely filled electronic subshells
c. unpaired electrons        d. completely vacant electronic subshells            (c)
d-block elements form coloured ions because
a. They absorb some energy for d –s transition
b. They absorb some energy for p – d transition
c. They absorb some energy for p – d transition
d. They do not absorb  energy
The correct electronic configuration of copper atom is
a. 3d104s1        b. 3d104s2        c. 3d94s2        d. 3d54s24p4            (a)
Copper is extracted from
a. cuprite        b. copper glance        c. malachite        d. copper pyrites    (d)
Silver salt used in photography is
a. AgCl        b. AgNO3        c. AgF        d. AgBr            (d)
Sodium thiosulphate is used in photography because of its
a. Oxidizing behaviour            b. Reducing behaviour
c. complexing  behaviour            d. Photochemical behaviour            (b)
Excess of sodium hydroxide reacts with zinc to form
a. Zn H2        b. Na2 ZnO2        c. ZnO        d. Zn(OH)2                (b)


German silver is an alloy of copper and
a. Zn and Ni        b. Al        c. Zn        d. Sn                    (a)

Which of the following compound will not give positive chromyl chloride test?
a.CuCl2        b. HgCl2        c. ZnCl2        d. C6H­5Cl                (d)
Which of the ions will give colourless aqueous solution?
a. Ni2+        b. Fe2+        c. Cu2+        d. Cu+                    (d)
Which of the following compounds is not coloured?
a. Na2CuCl4        b. NaCdCl4        c.K4[Fe(CN)6]    d.K3[Fe(CN)6]    (b)
In the extraction of Cu, the reaction which takes place in the Bessemer converter is _________
a. 2CuFeS2 + O2                Cu2S + FeS  + SO2    b. 2Cu2S + 3O2                 2Cu2O + 2SO2
c. 2Cu2O + Cu2 S                6 Cu + SO2    d. 2FeS + 3 O2                  2FeO + 2SO2             (a)
Select the correct statement
a. All cuprous salts are blue in colour        b. Transition metals are highly reactive
c. All cuprous salts are white in colour        d. Mercury is a liquid metal            (d)
Choose the wrong statement regarding K2Cr2O7
a. It is a powerful oxidizing agent         b. It is used in tanning industry
c. It is soluble in water        d. It reduces ferric sulphate to ferrous sulphate        (d)
For a transistion metal ioin, the effective magnetic moment in BM  is given by the formula
a. ‡n(n – 1)        b. ‡n(n  + 1)         c. ‡n(n + 2)         d. ‡n(n + 1) (n +2)            (c)

The correct statement is respect of d – block elements is
a. They are all metals            b. They show variable valency
c. They form coloured ions and complex salts    d. All above statements are correct    (d)
Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate
a.Cu(CN)2        b. K2[Cu(CN)6]    c. K[Cu(CN)2]    d. Cu2(CN2) + (CN)2        (d)
Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
a. Mg2+        b. Ti3+        c. V3+        d. Fe2+                    (d)
Among the following statement, the incorrect one is
a. Calamine and sidertie are carbonates    b. Argentite and cuprite are oxides
c. Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides    d. Malachite and azurite are ores of copper    (b)


The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is
a. Cu2O + FeS        b. FeSiO3        c. CuFeS2    d. Cu2S+ FeO            (b)
The transition element with the lowest atomic number is
a. Scandium    b. Titanium        c. Zinc        d. Lanthanum                (a)
Which transition element show highest oxidation state ?
a. Sc        b. Ti        c. Os        d. Zn                            (c)
Zirconium and Hafmium have almost equal atomic radii due to
a. lanthanide contraction    b. actinide contraction    c. same nuclear charge
d. shielding effect                                        (a)
___________ compounds are used in dyeing a pigments and in tanning of leather
a.Chloreine        b. Chromium        c. Nickel        d. Lead            (b)
The chief ore of zinc is ____________
a. calamine        b. Zincite        c. Calomel        d. Zinc blende        (d)
____________ is a combination of gold with colloidal stannic acid
a. Spiegel        b. Aqua regia        c. purple of cassius        d. Standpol        (c)
















5. f – BLOCK ELEMENTS
The electronic configuration of Lanthanides is _____________
a. [Xe]4f10, 5d0, 6s2        b.  [Xe]4f1 - 7, 5d1, 6s1    c.  [Xe]4f1 - 14, 5d1, 6s2
d.  [Xe]4f1 - 14, 5d1 - 10, 6s2                                    (c)    
The electronic configuration of Actinides is ______________
a. [Rn] 5f0 –14,6d0,7s0, b. [Rn] 5f0 –14,6d10 - 2,7s0  c. [Rn] 5f0 –14,6d10 - 2,7s1  
d. [Rn] 5f0 –14,6d0-2,7s2                                    (d)
The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that _____________
a. Zn and Y have about the same radius        b. Zr and Nb have similar oxidation stat
c. Zr and Hf have about the same radius    d. Zr and Zn have same oxidation state    (c)    
4.     The electronic configuration of gadolinium (At.No.64) is ____________
a. [Xe], 4f8, 5d9 , 6s2            b. [Xe], 4f7, 5d1 , 6s2  
 c. [Xe], 4f3, 5d5 , 6s2            d. [Xe], 4f6, 5d2 , 6s2                    (b)                            
The most common oxidation state of lanthanides is __________
a. +2        b. +1        c. +3        d. +4                        (c)

Lanthanides are extracted from ___________
a. Limonit        b. Monazite        c. Magnetite        d. Cassitnite        (b)

The elements in which the extra electron enters (n – 2) of orbitals are called _______
a. s – block elements    b. p – block elements   c. d– block elements  d. f – block elements      (d)

The Lanthanides contraction is due to _________
a. Perfect shielding of 4f electron        b. Imperfect shielding of 4f electron
c. Perfect shielding of 3d electron        d. Imperfect shielding of 3d electron        (b)

9.  Ceria is used in ___________
a. toys        b. tracer bullets    c. gas lamp materials    d. none of the above     (c)

10.  _________ is used in gas lamp material
a. MnO2            b. CeO2        c.N2 O5        d. Fe2 O3        (b)

11.Alloys of Lanthanides are called as __________
a. Mish – metals        b. metalloids        c. plate metals    d. Actinides        (a)

Metaliothermioc processes involving lanthanides are called as _________
a. Aluminothermic process    b. Lanthanido – thermic process
c. Reduction process         d. oxidation process                            (b)

___________ form oxocations
a. Lanthanides            b. Actinides
c. Noble gases            d. Alkali metals                            (b)


Maximum  oxidation state exhibited by Lanthanides is ____________
a. + 1        b. + 2        c. + 3        d. + 4                            (d)

15.  Lanthanides are separated by _____________
a. fractional distillation    b. steam distillation     c. fractional crystillisation d. sublimation    (c)

16. Important ore of Lanthanide is _____________
a. Pitchblende        b. Monozite        c. Gypsum        d. Chromite            (b)

17.The 5f group elements are also called as ____________
a. rare earth metals      b. actinides    c. lanthanides    d. inner transition elements    (b)

18.The oxidation state exhibited by lanthanides other than + 3 are _______
a. + 2 and + 4        b.+ 1        c. + 2        d. + 4                        (a)

19.The anhydrous fluorides and chlorides of rare earth elements are heated in an atmosphere ____________
a. carbon dioxide        b.helium        c. hydrogen        d. argon        (d)
 
20.The oxidation state shown by actinides other than + 4 state is __________
a. + 6                b. + 3            c. + 2            d. + 1            (a)






























6. CO – ORDINATION COMPOUNDS AND BIO – COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

Which is a double salt?
a. K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O    b. NaCl    c. K4[Fe(CN)6]    d.KCl                (a)

An example of complex compound having coordination number 4.
a. K4[Fe(CN)6]        b. [Co(en)3]Cl3    c. [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3        d. [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2    (d)

The geometry of [Cu(NH3)4]2+  complex ion
a. Linear        b. Tetrahedral    c. Square planar    d. Angular            (c)

An example of a chelating ligand is
a. NO2        b.chloro        c. Bromo        d. en                    (d)

The geometry of complex ion [Fen(CN)6]4-
a. Tetrahedral        b. Square planar    c. Octahedral        d.Triangular            (c)

The oxidation number of Nickel in the complex ion, [NiCl4]2- is
a. +1        b. –1            c. +2            d. –2                (c)

Which is not an anionic complex?
a. [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2        b. K4[Fe(CN)6]        c. K3[Fe(CN)6]    d.[NiCl4]2-    (a)

The geometry of [Ni(CN)4]2-
a. Tetrahedral        b. square planar        c. triangular        d.octahedral        (b)

An example of an ambidentate ligand is
a. CN        b. Cl-        c. NO2-        d.I-                        (c)

[FeF6]4- is a paramagnetic because
a. F-  is a weaker ligand             b. F-  is a stronger ligand
c. F-  is a flexi dentate ligand         d. F-  is a chelating ligand                 (a)

In [Fe(CN)6]4-, the central metal ion is
a. Fe        b. Fe+2        c. Fe+3            d. CN                    (b)
12. The coordination number of Ni(II) in [Ni(CN)4]2- is
a. 2            b. 4        c. 5            d. 6                    (b)

13The name of [PtIV(NH3)2Cl]2+  is
a. Diamminedichloroplatinum(IV) ion        b. Diamminedichloroplanitate(IV)
c. Diamminedichloroplatinum            d. Dichlorodiammineplatinum(IV) ion    (a)

14. For a compound K4[Fe(CN)6]               4K+ + [Fe(CN)6]4- the complex ion is
a. K+            b.CN-            c.FeII            d.[Fe(CN)6]4-            (d)





The theory which explains metal – ligand bond as ionic is
a. Werner’s theory         b. Valence bond theory        c. Crystal field theory
d. Arrhenius theory                                            (c)

A metal ion from the first transition series forms a octahedral complex with magnetic moment of 4.9 BM and another octahedral complex which is diamagnetic.  The metal ion is
a. Fe2+                b. CO2+        c.Mn2+            d. Ni2+            (a)

Paramagnetic moment is expressed in
a. Debye unit        b. K joules        c. BM        d. ergs                (c)

An octahedral complex of a metal ion has a magnetic moment of 5.9 BM and another octahedral complex of the same metal ion in the same oxidation state paramagnetic moment of 1.75 M.  Which one of the following ions could it be ?
a. Fe2+                b. CO2+        c. Fe3+        d. CO3+            (c)
    
The type of isomerism found in the complexes [C0(NO2)(NH3)5] SO4 and  [C0(SO4)(NH3)5] NO2
a. Hydrate isomerism      b. Coordination isomerism  c. Linkage isomerism  d. ionization    (d)                
Valence bond theory does not explain the property of complex compound
a. geometry        b.magnetic        c. nature of ligand        d. colour        (b)

For  a compound K4[Fe(CN)6]                      4K+ + [Fe(CN)6] 4- , the complex ion is _____
a. K+            b.CN-        c. FeII            d.[Fe(CN)6]4-                (d)

Which one of the following is a complex salt?
a. Nickel tetra carbonyl        b. Potassium ferrocyanide
c. Potassium ferricyanide        d. All the above                        (d)

Which one of the following is a neutral ligand?
a.cyano        b. chloro        c. nitrosyl        d. iodo                (c)

The IUPAC name for K3[FeIII (CN)6] is
a. Potassium ferrocyanide            b. Potassium ferricyanide    
c. Potassium hexa cyano ferrate (II)    d. calcium hexa cyano ferrate (II)            (d)

Co – ordination compound is a compound formed from a ____________
a. lewis acid and bronsted base        b. Lewis acid and Lewis base
c. Lewis base and bronsted acid        c.  bronsted acid and bronsted base        (a)

K4[Fe (CN)6] is an example of ____________
a. cationic complex        b. double salt        c. anionic complex        d. Lewis acid      (c)

When a single ligand has two co – ordinating positions, it is called __________
a. single ton        b. bidentate ligand        c. polydentate ligand    d. binary ligand  (b)




C2O42- is named as ___________
a. carbonato        b.bicarbonyl        c. bicarbanato        d. oxalato        (d)

If the complex ion is negative, the name of the metal ends in ______________  
a. –o        b.-ium            c. – ate        d. – ite                (c)

The isomerism between [PtII (NH3)4[CuCl4]  and [Cu (NH3)4 [PtCl4] is _________

a. co – ordination isomerism        b. linkage isomerism
c. ligand isomerism            d. ionization isomerism                    (a)
    

__________ isomerism occurs with ambidentate ligands
a. co – ordination        b. linkage        c. ligand        d. ionization        (b)

In sp3 d2 hybridisation, the co – ordination number is ___________
a. 2             b. 4        c.6             d. 8                    (c)

































7. NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY

The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by _________
a. madame curie    b. Pierre curie    c. Henry Becquerrel        d. Rutherford        (c)

The most penetrating radiations are
a.arays        b.b rays        c. g rays    d. all are equally penetrating        (c)

In the nuclear reaction, 92U238                                82pb206, the number  of a and b particles emitted are
a. 7a, 5 b    b. 6a, 4 b        c. 4a, 3 b        d. 8a, 6 b                (d)

4.Which one of the following particles is used to bombard 13AI27 to give 15p30 and a neutron
a. Ñ particle        b. deuteron        c. proton        d. neutron            (a)

5. The reaction 5B8                4B8  takes place due to
a. Ñ decay        b. b decay        c. electron capture        d. poistron decay    (d)

Radioactivity is due to
a. stable electronic configuration        b. stable nucleus
c. unstable nucleus                d. unstable electonic configuration    (c)

7. In the following radioactivity decay, 92x232             89y220, how many a and b particles are ejected
a. 3a, 3 b        b. 5a, 3 b        c. 3a, 5 b        d. 5a, 5 b            (a)

8. 92U235 nucleus absorbs a neutron and disintegrates into 54Xe139, 38Sr94 and X. What will be the product X?
a. 3 neutrons        b. 2 neutrons        c. Ñ particle        d.Ò particle        (a)

9. Loss of a b - particle is equivalent to
a. increase of one proton only        b. decrease of one neutron only
c. both a and b                    d. none of these                    (c)

9.Which of the following is used as neutron absorber in the nuclear reactor?
a. Water        b. Deuterium       c. Some compound of Uranium           d. Cadmium    (d)

10.The amount of energy absorbed or released during nuclear reaction is called __________of nuclear reaction
a. Q – value        b. P – value        c. D – value        d. E – value            (a)

11. amu = _______________
a. 931 eV        b. 931 MeV        c. 9.31 MeV        d. 6.023 x 1023 eV        (b)






12.The isotope which is used to measure the water content of the body is _______
a. Carbon – 11    b. Carbon – 14    c. Iodine – 131    d. Tritium            (d)

13.Sr – 90 is useful for finding __________
a. levels of liquids in tanks        b. adulterated substances in cement
c. purity of milk             d. water content of a body                    (a)
































8. SOLID STATE – II
The number of chloride ions that surrounds the central Na+ ion in NaCl crystal is ______
a. 12        b. 8            c. 6            d. 4                    (c)
The Bragg’s equation is _________
a.l = 2 d sin q        b. nd = 2 l sin q        c. 2 l = nd sin q    d. n l = 2d sin q    (d)
A regular three dimensioinal arrangement of identical points in space is called _______
a. unit cell        b. space lattice     c. primitve        d. crystallography        (b)
4. The smallest repeating unit in space lattice which when repeated over and again results in the crystal of the given substance is called ____________
a. Space lattice        b. Crystal lattice    c. Unit cell        d. Isomorphism    (c)
5..The crystal structure of CsCl is _______
a. simple cubic        b. face center cubic        c. tetragonal        d. body center cubic      (d)
6. An  ion leaves its regular site occupy a position in the space between the lattice sites is called _________________
a. Schottky defect        b. Frenkel defect    c. impurity defect    d. vacancy defect    (a)
7. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess negative electrons are called
a. super conductors        b. n type semi – conductors    c. p – type semi conductors        d. insulators                                                (b)
8. In the Bragg’s equation for diffraction of X – rays, ‘n’ represents
a. number of moles        b. Avagadro number    c. Quantum number    
d. order of reflection                                            (d)
9. The 8 :8  type of packing is present in __________
a. MgF2            b.CsCl        c. KCl            d. NaCl            (b)

10.The crystals which are good conductors of electricity and heat are _________
a. ionic crystals        b. molecular crystals        c. metallic crystals
d. covalent crystals                                            (c)

11.In a simple cubic cell, each point on a corner is shared by ________
a. one unit cell        b. 2 unit cell         c. 8 unit cell        d. 4 unit cell            (c)

12. The ability of certain ultra cold substances to conduct electricity without resistance is called _________________
a. semi conductor        b. conductor        c.super conductor    d. insulator        (c)

13. The total number of atoms per unit cell is bcc is ______________
a. 1            b. 2            c. 3            d. 4                (b)

14. The force that generally occur in all kinds of molecular crystals _________
a. dipole – dipole force        b. electro static force
c. Vanderwaals force                d. all the above                    (c)

15. Rutile is ________
a. TiO2            b. Cu2O            c. MoS2        d.Ru            (a)


16. Semiconductors are used as ___________
a. Rectifiers        b. Transistors    c. Solar cells        d. all the above        (d)

An example of metal deficiency defect ____________

a. NaCl            b. AgCl            c. CsCl        d. FeS            (d)


An example of covalent crystal is ___________
a. Graphite        b. Sulphur        c.Diamond        d. Rock salt            (c)


Super conducting __________ are used in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Imaging equipment
a. metalloids        b. tellurides        c. solenoid        d. metals            (c)


















9. THERMODYNAMICS

The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at constant temperature and pressure is called __________
a. DE            b. DH            c. DS        d. DG                (b)

All the naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to ____
a. decrease of entropy        b. increase in enthalpy    c. increase in free energy
d. decrease of free energy                                        (d)

3.In an adiabatic process which of the following is true ?
a. q = w         b. q = 0            c. DE = q            d. PDV = 0        (b)

4. The standard free energy change, DG0 is related to equilibrium constant Kp as _____

a. Kp = -RT ln DG0    b. Kp =                e            c. Kp = -DG        d. Kp = DG    
                    
                                   RT                  RT             RT         (b)
                           
5. When a liquid boils, there is _________
a. an increase in entropy        b. an decrease in entropy
c. an increase  in heat vaporization        d. an increase in free energy            (a)

If DG for a reaction is negative, the change is _________
a. spontaneous        b. non - spontaneous     c. reversible        d. irreversible    (a)

7. Which of the following does not result in an increase in the entropy?
a. crystallization of sucrose from solution     b. rusting of iron                    
c. conversion of ice to water            d. vaporization of camphor                (a)

8.In which of the following process, the process is always non – feasible?
a. D H > 0, DS > 0    b DH < 0, DS > 0    c. DH > 0 , DS < 0    d. DH < 0 , D S < 0        (c)

9. Change in Gibb’s free energy is given by ___________
a. DG = D H + TD S        b.  DG = D H -  TDS        c. D G = D H x TDS        
d. None of the above                                            (b)

10. For the reaction 2Cl(g)                    Cl(2g), the signs of  DH and   DS respectively are ____
a. +,-            b. +,+        c. -,-        d. -, +                        (c)

11.For a reversible process at equilibrium, the entropy change DS is ___________
a. DH / D T        b. T / qrev        c. qrev / T        d.TDH                (c)




12.When  a solid melts, there is __________
a. an increase in enthalpy            b. no change in D H
c. a decrease in D H                d. a decrease in D E                    (a)        
13.Which of the following relation is not correct?
a. D H = DE - PD V            b. D E = q + W        c. D S sys + D Ssur >= 0
d. D Sfusion = D Hfusion / T                                        (a)

14.For a natural process in any isolated system ____________
a. D S > 0            b. D S < 0            c. D S > = 0        d. D S < = 0        (a)

The sign convention for work done by the system is ______________
a. zero            b. positive        c. negative    d. either positive or negative    (c)

16. The property which does not depend on the quantity of matter is called
a. extensive        b. intensive        c. isothermic        d. adiabatic            (b)

What is the state of the reaction when DG = 0?
a. spontaneous        b. non spontaneous        c. equilibrium        d. all these        (c)





























CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM – II

State of chemical equilibrium is _________
a. dynamic        b. stationery        c. none        d. both        (a)
2. If the equilibrium constants of the reactions are 2A ⇄B is k1 and B⇄2A is k2 , then ________
a. k1 = 2k2        b.k1 = 1/k2    c. k2 = (k1)2        d. k1 =1 / k22            (b)

3. In the reversible reaction 2HI Û H2 + I2, Kp is _______________
a. greater than Kc        b. Less than Kc    c. Equal to Kc    d.zero        (c)
4..In the equilibrium N2 + 3H2 ⇄  2NH3, the maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained with the process having __________
a. low pressure and high temperature    b. low pressure and low temperature
c. high temperature and high pressure    d. high pressure and low temperature    (d)

5. For the homogeneous gas reaction at 600 K
4NH3(g)  +   5O2                          4NO(g)  + 6H2O(g)
a. (mol dm-3)-1        b.mol dm-3      c. (mol dm-3)-10    d. (mol dm-3)-9        (b)

6. Two moles  of ammonia gas are introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0 dm3 vessel in which it partially dissociates at high temperature.  At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains. The equilibrium constant Kc for the dissociation is _________
a. 27/16 (mole dm-3)2       b. 27/8 (mole dm-3)2      c. 27/4 (mole dm-3)2    d.None of these    (a)

   7.An equilibrium reaction is endothermic if k1 and k2 are equilibrium constants at T1 and T2  temperatures respectively and if T2 is greater than T1 then __________
a. k1 < k2        b. k1 > k2        c. k1 = k2    d. None                    (a)

8. In an equilibrium, a catalyst ____________
a. increases the rate of forward reaction        b. decreases the rate of forward reaction
c. increases the rate of reverse reaction    
d. affects both forward and reverse reaction to the same extent                (d)

9. Chemical reaction always go to completion if _____________
a.    The molarity of the reacting solution is increased
b.    The pressures of the reacting substances are increased
c.    A volatile product is formed
d.    None of the above                                        (c)    

10. In Haber’s process which  combination of pressure and temperature give more amount of ammonia?
a. High pressure and high temperature        b. High pressure and low temperature
c. Low pressure and low temperature        d. Low pressure and high temperature   (b)

The  relationship between kp = kc is _____________

a. kp = kc        b. kp = kc(RT)        c. kp = kc+ RTDng        d. kp = kc(RT)    Dng         (d)

11. CHEMICAL KINETICS

Hydrolysis of an ester by dilute HCl is an example for ___________
a. second order reaction        b. zero order reaction
c. pseudo first order reaction        d. first order reaction                (c)
For the second order reaction t1/2 µ_________________
a. 1/a                b. 1/a2            c.constant        d. a        (a)

3. The unit of zero order rate constant is _________
a. litre mol-1 sec-1    b. mol litre -1 sec-1  c. sec-1        d. litre 2 sec-1          (b)

4.The first order of reaction, the plot of log (a – x) against time ‘t’ gives a straight line ____
a. with positive slope        b. with negative slope        c. passing through origin
d. with no slope                                              (b)

5. The excess energy which molecule must posses to became active is known as ____
a. kinetic energy        b. threshold energy        c. potential energy
d. activation energy                                        (d)

6. Arrhenius equation is __________
a. K = Ae-I/RT        b. K = Ae-RT / Ea    c. K = Ae-Ea / RT    d.K = AeEa / RT    (c)

7.The term a in Arrhenius equation is called _____
a. probability factor        b. activation of energy        c. collision factor
d. frequency factor                                        (d)

   8. The sum of power os concentaration terms that occur in the rate equation is called ____
a. molecularity        b. order        c. rate        d. rate constant        (b)

9.The relationship between half – life period (t1/2) and first order rate constant is _____
a. t1/2 = 0.693 K    b. t1/2 = 0.963 K           c. t1/2 = 0.693 K           t1/2 =  K           
                       K                      K          0.693        (c)

 10. The reactions in which the reacting molecules react in more than one way yielding different set of products is called ______
a. consecutive reactions        b. parallel reactions         c. opposite reactions
d. chain reaction                                                (b)

11. The half life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes.  Then its rate constant is __
6.93 x 102 min-1 b. 6.93 x 10-2 min-1 c. 6.932 x 10-2  min-1 d. 6.93 x 101 min-1        (c)

12.  For a reaction : a A                        bB, the rate of reaction is doubled when the concentration of A is increased by four times.  The rate of reaction is equal to ______
a.K[A]a        b. K[A]1/2        c.K[A]1/a        c.[A]                    (b)

13. For a reaction Ea = 0 and K= 4.2 x 105 sec-1  at 300 K, the value of K at 310 K will be _______
a. 4.2 x 105 sec-1     b. 8.4 x 105 sec-1      c. 8.4 x 105 sec-1     d. unpredictable        (a)



14. decomposition of sulphuryl chloride in the gas phase proceed by ________ order kinetics
a. zero        b. first        c. second        d. third                    (b)

15. For a zero order reaction half life period is __________
a. t1/2 µ a’    b. t1/2 µ a0            c. t1/2 µ a-1        d. t1/2 µ a-2            (a)

16. The first order order reaction takes 30 minutes for 75 percentage of the reaction to be completed. What is the rate constant for the forward reaction?                    
a. 4.767 x 10-2  per second            b. 4.767 x 10-2  per min
c. 4.767 per second                d. 4.6 x 10-2  per min                (d)

17.  The half life period of the reaction depends upon _________

a. initial concentration        b. concentration after the half life                                              c. concentration after completion of the reaction     d. the nature of the substance         (d)



































12. ELECTRO CHEMISTRY

The process in which chemical change occurs on passing electricity is termed as _____
a. neutralization         b. hydrolysis    c. electrolysis    d. ionization        (c)

The laws of electrolysis were enunciated first by _______
a. Dalton         b.  Faraday        c. Kekule        d. Avagadro        (b)

When one coulomb of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on the electrode equal to _____
a. equivalent weight        b. molecular weight        c. electro chemical equivalent
d. 1 gram                                            (c)

Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to _____
a. atomic number of the cation        b. atomic number of the anion
c. equivalent weight of the electrolyte        d. speed of the cation            (c)

The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of KCl is 0.0014 ohm-1 cm-1 at 250C. Its equivalent conductance is _____
a. 14 ohm-1cm2 eq-1        b. 140 ohm-1cm2 eq-1
c. 1.4 ohm-1cm2 eq+1        d. 0.14 ohm-1cm2 eq-1                    (b)

6. The equivalent conductivity of CH3COOH at 250C is 80 ohm-1 cm2 eq-1 and at infinite dilution 400 ohm-1 cm2 eq-1 . The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is ___
a. 1        b. 0.2        c. 0.1        d. 0.3                    (b)

7. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid, the degree of ionization of acetic acid
a. increases        b. decreases        c. does not change        d. becomes zero    (b)

8. NH4OH is a weak base because ________________
a. it has low vapour pressure        b. it is only partially ionized
c. it is completely ionized        d. it has low density                        (b)

Which one of the following formulae represents Ostwald’s dilution law for a binary electrolyte whose degree of dissociation is a and concentration C,
a. K = (1 - a) C/a        b. K = a2 C / 1 - a        c. K = (1 - a) C / a2
d. K = a2 C / (1 - a ) C                                            (b)

10. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable in the case of the solution of _______
a. CH3COOH    b.NaCl        c. NaOH        d. H2SO4            (a)

Which of the following relationship is correct?
a. pH = 1 / [H+]        b. pH = log10[H+]    c. log10 pH = [H+]    d. pH = log10 1/ [H+]        (d)

When 10-6 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in one litre of solvent, the pH of the solution is _____
a.6        b. 7            c. less than 6        d. more than 7            (b)



13.When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles litre-1 is _____
a. 1 x 10-12    b. 1 x 10-2        c.1 x 10-7    d.1 x 10-4                (b)

14. The pH of a solution , containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is __________
a. 1        b. 10-1            c. 13        d. 10-13                (c)

15.A solution which is resistant to changes of pH on addition of small amount of an acid or a base is known as _____
a. buffer solution    b. true solution    c. isohydric solution         d. ideal solution        (a)

16. The hydrogen ion concentration of a buffer solution consisting of a weak acid and its salt is given by _____
[H+] = Ka [Acid]    b. [H+] = Ka [Salt]    c. [H+] = Ka [Acid]    d. [H+] = Ka [Salt]
       [Salt]                                        [Acid]        (a)

17. Indicators  used in acid – base titration’s are _____
a. strong organic acids        b. strong organic bases    
    c. weak organic acids or weak against bases    d. non electrolysis                (c)

For the titration between oxalic acid and sodium hydroxide, the indicator used is ___
a. Potassium Permangnate    b. Phenolpthalein     c. Litmus      d. Methyl orange        (b)

19.Silicon doped with boron is an example of ____
a. intrinsic semi conductor        b.  n – type semi conductor
c. p – type semi conductor        d. insulator                            (c)

20.Arsenic has _____ valence electrons
a. 3            b. 4            c. 5        d. 8                    (c)

 21.Semi conductors have ____ valence electrons
a. 3         b. 4        c. 5        d.6                            (b)

 22.The enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid by a strong base is _____
a. 5.732 kJ            b. 57.32 kJ        c. –57.32 kJ        d. – 57.32 J        (c)

23._____ coloumbs represent one Faraday
a. 96,495        b.9,649.5        c.964.95        d.96.495                (a)

The unit of specific resistance is _____
a. ohm            b.mho            c. ohm – m        d. mho.m-1            (c)

The unit of specific conductance is _____
a. ohm – m-1        b. ohm-1 – m        c. ohm-1 m-1        d. ohm – m-1            (c)

The reduction of degree of dissociation of a salt by the addition of a common ion is called the ____
a. Ostwald’s dilution Law        b. common ion effect        c. Faraday’s first Law        d. Faraday’s second Law                                    (b)

14. ELECTOCHEMISTRY – II
The potential of a single electrode in a half cell is called _______________
a. reduction potential    b. half – wave potential    c. single electrode potential
d. cell potential                                            (c)

2. The relationship between free energy change and emf of a cell is __________
a. DG = -nFE        b. DH = -nFE        c. DE = nFG        d. DF = nEG        (a)

3. The feasibility of a redox reaction can be predicted with the help of _________
a. Electronegativity    b. Electrochemical series     c. Electron affinity
d. Equivalent conductance                                    (b)

   4.The metals near the bottom of the electrochemical series are ____
a. strong reducing agents    b. strong oxidizing agents        c. weak reducing agents
d. oxidizing agents                                            (b)

5. The emf of a cell with 1 M solutions of reactants and products in solution at 250C is called __
a.Half cell potential  b. Standard emf c. Single electrode potential d. Redox potential    (b)

6. The relationship between equilibrium constant and standard emf of a cell is _____
a. E0 = 0.0591 log K    b. 0.0591 E0 = log K    c. nE0 = 0.0951 log K  d. nE0 = 0.0591 log K
(d)
7. The oxidation half reaction that takes place in Daniel cell is ____
a. Zn + Cu2+         Zn2+ + Cu            b. Zn              Zn2+ + 2e-
c. Cu2+ + 2e-          Cu                d. Cu        Cu2+ + 2e-            (b)    

8. The standard emf,E0 for Zn- Cu voltaic cell is ____
a. 1.5 V        b. 1.1 V        c. 1.8 V        d. 0.11 V            (b)

9. The Nernst equation is ____
a. E0 = E – 2.303 RT/nF log K        b. E0 = E – 2.303 nF/ RT log K
c. E  = E0  – 2.303 RT/nF log K        d. E  = E0  + 2.303 RT/nF log K            (c)



















15. ISOMERISM IN ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. 2 – butene exists in ____ isomeric forms
a. 2        b.3        c.4        d.None                        (b)

2. The geometrical isomers of butadiene are ___________ forms
a. cis and trans     b. s-trans and s- cis        c. d and 1        d. R and S        (b)

3. The shape of cyclopropane is __________
a. butterfly    b. open –envelope        c. flat        d. cyclic            (c)

4. The energy difference between two forms of cyclohexane is __________
a. 6.5 K.cal/mole        b. 6.5 Cal/mole    c.9.5 K.cal/mole    d. 9.5 Cal/mole    (a)

5. The decrease in stability of cyclohexanol is due to __________
a. skew interaction       b. flag – pole interaction      c. Baeyer’s strain            (d)
    d. 1 : 3 diaxial interaction

Cyclohexanaol contains  ____ % of equatorial cyclohexanol in the equilibrium mixture
a. 10        b.90            c. 50        d.75                        (b)

The mesoform is said to be a _____ of the active form
a. diasteromer        b. enantiomer    c. racimer        d. monomer        (a)

The DPM of the disubstituted isomer is maximum for _______
a.Ortho isomer        b. Meta isomer        c. Para isomer    d. None    (a)    






















16. HYDROXY DERIVATIVES
1.Which has the highest boiling point ?
a. CH3CH3            b.CH3OH        c.C2H5OH        d. C3H8        (c)

2.Which is soluble in H2O ?
a.phenol        b. alkanes        c. alcohols        d. alkenes            (c)

3. Order of reactivity of alcohol towards sodium metal is
a. primary < secondary > tertiary    b. primary > secondary > tertiary
c. primary < secondary < tertiary    d. primary > secondary < tertiary            (b)

4. The boiling point of ethyl alcohol should be less than that of
a. propane    b. formic acid        c. dimethyl ether    d. None of these        (b)

5. Ethyl alcohol cannot be usd as a solvent for CH3MgI because
a.CH3MgI reacts with alcohol giving methane         
The reaction between them is explosive in nature        
 CH3MgI is converted into C2H5MgI
alcohol is immiscible with CH3MgI                                (a)

6. When alcohols are converted to alkyl chlorides by thionyl chloride in presence of pyridine the intermediate formed is
a. sulphonium ion    b. chlorosulphonic acid    c. alkyl chlorosulphite    
d. chlorosulphite                                            (c)

On  oxidation of an alcohol gives an aldehyde having the same number of carbon atoms as that of alcohol.  The alcohol is
a. 10 alcohol        b. 20 alcohol        c. 30 alcohol        d. None            (a)

8. A compound that gives a positive iodoform test is
a. 1 – pentanol    b. 2 – pentanone    c. 3 – pentanone    d. pentanal            (b)


9.  The compound  that reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is
a. butan – 1 – ol        b. butan – 2– ol    c. 2 – methyl propan – 1 – ol
d. 2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol                                    (d)

10. The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because
phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide        
phenoxide ioin is stronger base than ethoxide
phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalisation
phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide ion                        (c)

11. Among the following compounds strongest acid is
a. HC     CH    b. C6H6    c. C2H6    d. CH3OH                    (d)





12. p – nitrophenol is having lower pK4, value than phenol because
phenol  is more acidic than p – nitro phenol
anion of p – nitro phenol is more stabilized by resonance than that of phenol
degree of ionization of p – nitro phenol is less than that of phenol
anion of p – nitro phenol is less stable than that of phenol                (b)

13. The reaction  of Lucas reagent is fast with
a. (CH3)3COH    b. (CH3)2CHOH    c. CH3(CH2)2OH    d. CH3CH2OH        (a)

14. When phenol is distilled with Zn dust it gives
a. benzaldehyde        b. benzoic acid    c. toluene    d. benzene            (d)

15. A compound that undergoes bromination easily
a. benzoic acid        b. benzene        c. phenol        d. toluene        (c)

    16. Isomerism exhibited by ethylene glycol is
a. position isomerism    b. chain isomerism    c. functional isomerism d. both a and c    (c)

17. Ethylene diamine is converted ethylene glycol using
a. Na2CO3 solution     b. nitrous acid    c. NaHCO3(Aqueous)     d. Baeyer’s reagent  (b)

18. 1 – propanol and 2 – propanol can be best distinguished by
a.    oxidation with KmnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution
b.    oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution
c.    oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution
d.    oxidation with concentrated H2SO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution    (c)

Glycerol is used
a. as a sweetening agent        b. in the manufacture of good quality soap
c. in the manufacture of nitro glycerin      d. in  all the above                    (d)

The alcohol obtained by the hydrolysis of oils and fats is
a. pentanol        b. propanol        c. glycerol        d. glycol            (c)

The number of secondary alcoholic group in glycerol is
a. 1            b.2        c.3        d.0                        (a)

The active component of dynamite is
a. Keiselghur    b. nitro glycerine    c.nitro benzene    d. trinitro toluene            (b)

The reaction of ethylene glycol with PI3 gives
a. I CH2 CH2 I        b. CH2 = CH2        c. CH2= CHI        d. ICH = CHI            (b)

The compound which reacts faster with Lucas reagent at room temperature is ___
a. 1 – butanol        b. 2 – butanol    c. 2 – methyl – 1 – propanol
2 – methyl – 2 – propanol                                        (c)





High boiling point of phenol is due to ____
a. aromatic character        b. covalent bond        c. resonance    
d. intermolecular hydrogen bonding                                    (d)

Which reagent will distinguish C6H5OH from C6H5CH2OH?
a. NaHCO3(aq)        b. NaOH(aq)        c. CH2SO4    d. None of these            (b)

The alcohol which is used in the manufacture of formaldehyde is ______
a. methanol        b. ethanol        c. aldol        d. menthol            (a)

1,3 dihydroxy benzene is also known as _____
a. resorcinol            b. Quinol        c.catechol        d.cresol        (a)

The product obtained in Schotten – Baumann reaction is _______
a. phenyl benzoate         b. benzoyl chloride            c. phenol        
d. sodium benzoate                                            (a)


































17.ETHERS

1. The isomerism exhibited by C2H5OC2H5 and CH3 – O – CH –  CH3

    CH3

a. functional        b. metamerism        c. position        d. chain        (b)

Which one of the following is simple ether?
a. CH3  - O – C2H5        b. C2H5 – O – CH3        c. C2H5 – O - C2H5
d. C3H7 – O - C2H5                                            (c)

Diethyl ether can be decomposed with
a. HI        b. KmnO4        c. NaOH        d. H2O                    (a)

Oxygen atom of ether is
a. very active     b. replacable        c. oxidizing        d. comparatively inert    (d)

5. According to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are
a. Neutral        b. Acidic        c. Basic        d. Amphoteric        (c)

Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are not present in
a. CH3COOH        b. C2H5O C2H5    c. Basic        d. C2H5NH2            (b)

When ethyl Iodide is treated with dry silver oxide it forms
a. ethyl alcohol    b. diethylether    c. silver ethoxide    d. ethylmethyl ether        (b)

8. Williamson’s synthesis is an example of
a. nucleophilic addition        b. electrphillic addition    c. electrophillic substitution
d.Nucleophilic substitution reaction                                (d)

When ether  is exposed to air for sometime an explosive substance produced is
a. peroxide        b. oxide        c. TNT        d. superoxide            (a)

Ether is formed when alkylhalide is treated with sodium alkoxide.  This method is known as
a.Hoffmann reaction        b. Williamson’s synthesis        c. Wurtz synthesis
d. Kolbe’s reaction                                            (b)

Higher ethers can be prepared from lower members with the help of ____
a. conc.H2SO4        b. sodium alkoxide    c. dry silver oxide     d. Grignard reagent        (d)

When ethers are exposed to air it gives ___
a. peroxide        b. oxonium salts    c. ethyl alcohol    d. CO2 + H2 O        (a)






Which reagent is useful to distinguish between anisole and phenol
a. Baeyer’s reagent        b. Tollen’s reagent        c. Bromine water
d. Chromic acid                                            (c)

Which one of the following can be obtained by Williamsons synthesis
a. Ethers        b. Alcohols        c. Aldehydes        d. Acids            (a)












































18. CARBONYL COMPOUNDS

The chain isomer of 2 – methyl propanal is
a. 2 – butanone            b. butanal            c. 2 – methyl propanol    
d. but – 3 ene – 2 – ol                                        (b)

2. Schiffs reagent gives pink colour with
a. acetone    b. acetaldehyde    c. ethyl alcohol    d. methyl acetate            (b)

3. Isopropyl alcohol vapours with air over silver catalyst at 520 K give
a. tert.butyl alcohol        b. acetaldehyde    c. acetone        d. 2 – propanol    (c)

4. Mehtyl ketones are usually characterized by
a. the Fehling solution    b. the iodoform test             c. the Schiff’s test   
d. the Tollen’s reagent                                        (b)        

5. Which  of the following compounds is oxidized to give ethyl methyl ketone?
a. 2 – propanol        b. 2 – pentanone        c. 1 – butanol
d. 2 – butanol                                            (d)    

6.  Formaldehyde polymerizes to give
a. paraldehyde        b. paraformaldehyde    c. formalin    d. formic acid        (b)

7.Tollen’s reagent is
        a. ammonical cuprous chloride    b. ammonical cuprous oxide
c. ammonical silver nitrate        d. ammonical silver chloride            (c)

8. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling solution, it gives a precipitate of
a. Cu2O        b.CuO        c. CuO + Cu2O        d. Cu                (a)

9. The compound that does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction is
a.fomaldehyde    b. acetaldehyde    c. benzaldehyde    d. trimethyl acetaldehyde    (b)

10. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of
a. electrophillic addition        b. nucleophilic addition
c. nucleophilic substitution        d. electrophilic substitution                    (b)

11.Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in the presence of Pd and BaSO4 gives
a. phenol    b. benzoic acid    c. benzyl alcohol    d. benzaldehyde            (d)

12. From which of the following, tertiary butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnetism iodide?
a. HCHO        b. CH3CHO        c. CH3COCH3    d. CO2                (c)






13. During reduction of aldehydes with hydrazine and C2H5ONa the product formed is
a. R – CH = N – NH2        b. R – C     N        c. R – C – NH2    d. R– CH3
                                    
O                (d)

14. Aldol is
a.2 – hydroxy butanol    b. 3 - hydroxy butanol    c. 3 - hydroxy butanal     
d. 2 – hydroxy butanal                                         (c)


In the reduction of acetaldhyde using LiAIH4 the hydride ion acts as
a. electrophile        b. nucleophile    c. both a and b    d. a free radical        (b)

Which of the following statement is wrong?
a.    2 – pentanone and 3 pentanone are position isomers
b.    aqueous solution of formaldehyde is known as formalin
c.    aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic substitution
d.    aldehydes act as reducing agents                            (c)

A cyanohydrin of a compound X on hydrolysis gives lactic acid.  The X is
a. HCHO        b. CH3CHO    c. (CH3)2CO        d. C6H5CH2CHO            (b)


18. The IUPAC name of CH3 – C = CH – CH3  is

 CH3    O
a. 4 – methylpent – 3 – en 2 – one     b. 2 – methylpent – 3 – en 2 – one
c. 3 – methylpent – 3 – en 2 – one     d. None of these                    (a)

19.Which of the following does not give iodoform test?
a. aceto phenone    b. benzophenone    c. CH3 – CHOH    d. CH3 – CH – CH2 CH2 – CH3

                                      CH3             OH            (b)

20. The compound which does not reduce Fehling solution?
a. formaldehyde    b. acetaldehyde    c. benzaldehyde    d. propionaldehyde        (c)


21. CH3COCH3                             the product is
a. mesitylene        b. mesityl oxide    c. phorone        d. paraldehyde        (a)

22.Which compound on strong oxidation gives propionic acid ?
a. CH3 – CH – CH3    b. CH3 – CO – CH3        c.   CH3    d. CH3 CH2 CH2 OH

             OH                    CH3 – C - OH

                                     CH3                    (d)


23. The compound used in the preparation of the tranquilizer, sulphonal is
a. acetone    b. acetophenone    c. isopropyl alcohol        d. glycol            (a)

24. Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate                                gives
a. benzophenone    b. benzaldehyde    c. acetophenone    d. phenyl benzoate        (c)

25. Bakelite is a product of reaction between
a. formaldehyde and NaOH        b. phenol and methanal
c. aniline and NaOH            d. phenol and chloroform                    (b)

Which one of the following is a hydrogen
a. CH3CH2CHO    b. CH3CH2CHO    c. CH3CH2CHO    d. CCL3CHO            (b)

Ammonia derivatives acts as ____
a. nucleophile        b. electrophile    d. hydrophile        d. lyophile            (a)

The oil of bitter almond is ________
a. acetaldehyde    b. formaldehyde    c. benzaldehyde    d. phenol            (c)

When acetone is reduced by sodium amalgam and water, it gives _______
a. propan – 2 – ol    b. propan – 1 – ol    c. propan – 2 –al    d. propane            (a)

Primary alcohols on oxidation give
a. aldehydes        b. ketones        c. acid anhydrides     d. esters            (a)

In the preparation of aldehydes by the dry distillation of calcium salts which one of the following is always used?
a. Calcium benzoate    b. Calcium formate    c. Calcium acetate    d. None of these        (b)

Which one of the following is used as an urinary antiseptic
a. Hexamethylene diamine        b. Hexamethylene tetramine
c. Urease                d. None of these                        (b)


Acetone under Clemmenson reduction gives ______
a. propane    b. 1 – propanol    c. 2 – propanol    d. acetic acid                (a)


    












19.CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

Which of the following is least acidic?
a. C2H5OH        b. CH3COOH        c.C6H5OH        d. ClCH2COOH        (a)

Weakest acid among the following is
a. Acetic acid        b. Phenol        c. Water         d. Acetylene            (d)

Ester formation involves the reaction of
a. an aldehyde and a ketone        b. An alcohol with RMgX
c. Two molecules of an acid with dehydrating agent    d.An aclhalide with an alcohol    (d)

Heating a mixture of sodium acetate and soda lime gives
a. methane    b. ethane    c. acetic acid        d. benzene                    (a)

The acid which reduces Tollen’s reagent is
a. acetic acid    b. benzoic acid    c. formic acid         d. oxalic acid                (c)

The IUPAC name of CH3 – CH2 – COOH is
a. Ñ - methyl butric acid     b. 3 – methyl butanoic acid    
c. 2 – methyl butanoic acid    d. Iso pentanoic acid                        (c)

The Isomerism exhibited by CHCH2COOCH3 is
a. metamerism        b. position        c. chain        d. functional            (d)

The acid that cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent
a. acetic acid    b. formic acid        c. butyric acid    d. benzoic acid            (b)

Which order of arrangement is correct in terms of the strength of the acid
a.    CH3 – CH2COOH > CH3COOH < HCOOH < ClCH2COOH
b.    ClCH2COOH < HCOOH < CH3COOH < CH3CH2COOH
c.    CH3 – CH2COOH < CH3COOH < HCOOH < ClCH2COOH
d.    HCOOH > CH3CH2COOH < CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH                (c)

The compound which undergoes intramolecular dehydration with P2O5  is
a. acetic acid    b. formic acid        c. propionic acid     d. Butyric acid            (b)


   
         C  = O        ? the product is

        
a.  CO + H2O        b. HCOOH        c. H2 + CO2        d. HCHO + O2        (c)            






When chlorine is passed through acetic acid in presence of red P, it forms
a. acetyl chloride    b. Trichloro acetaldehyde    c. Trichloro acetic acid
d. Methyl chloride                                            (c)

 Which of the following compounds will react with NaHCO3 solution to give sodium salt and CO2?
a.acetic acid        b. n – hexanol    c. phenol    d. both a and c            (a)

When propanoic acid is treated with aqueous sodium – bicarbonatate, CO2 is liberated.  The “C” of CO2 comes from
a. methyl group    b. carboxyclic acid group    c. methylene group    d. bicarbonate    (d)    


Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and alcohol because of
e.    inter molecular hydrogen bonding
f.    formation of dimmers
g.    highly acidic hydrogen
h.    greater resonance stabilization of their conjugate base                (d)

Among the following the strongest acid is
a.CICH2COOH        b. Cl3CCOOH    c. CH3COOH        d.Cl2CHCOOH        (b)


17.Which of the following compound is optically active
a. CH3CH2COOH    b. HOOC – CH2 – COOH    c. CH3CH(OH)COOH
d. Cl2CHCOOH                                            (c)

18. CH3COCOOH         ? the product is


a. CH3COCOOH    b. CH3CH2COOH    c. CH3CHOHCHO    d. COOHCH2COOH        (a)

19. The compound found in some stony deposit in kidneys is
a. potassium oxalate         b. oxalic acid        c. potassium succinate    
    d. calcium oxalate                                            (d)

20. Ethylene cyanide on hydrolysis using acid gives
a. oxalic acid    b. succinic acid    c. adipic acid        d. propionic acid            (b)

Which one of the following reaction takes place when carboxylic acid is heated with soda lime?
a. Decarboxylation    b. Oxidation    c. Dehydration    d. Dehydrogenation            (a)

By which reagent can we distinguish formic acid from acetic acid?
a. Schiff’s base    b. Tollen’s reagent     c. Benedic’s reagent  d. None of the above    (b)






Benzene can be obtained from benzoic acid by heating with ___
a. conc.H2SO4        b. NAOH + CaO        c. PCl5        d. H2 / Pt        (b)

The oil of winter green contains___
a. formalin        b. methyl salicylate        c. butanoic acid    d.  butyric acid    (b)

Carboxylic acids have high boiling point due to ___


a. –COOH group        b. – C – group    c. hydroxy bonding    d. –OH group    (c)


Chlorination of acetic acid takes place in presence of ____

a. phosphorous    b. iodine    c. phosphorous or iodine    d. none of these        (c)


The acid used in calico printing is __

a. formic acid        b. acetic acid        c. lactic acid        d. oxalic acid            (d)





























20. ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS

Bromo ethance reacts with silver nitrite to give

a. C2H5NO2    b.  C2H5- O - NO    c. C2H5Ag + NaBr    d. C2H5NC                (a)


The isomerism exhibited by CH3  - CH2 – N     and CH3 CH2 – O – N - = O is



a. position        b. chain        c. functional        d. tautomerism        (c)

3.In nitro alkanes – NO2 group is converted to –NH2 group by the reaction with
a.Sn/HCl        b. Zn dust        c. Zn/NH4Cl        d. Zn/NaOH            (a)

4.When nitromethane is reduced with Zn dust + NH4Cl in neutral medium, we get
a. CH3NH2        b. C2H5NH2        c. CH3NHOH        d. C2H5COOH        (c)    

5.The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
a. Toluene        b. benzene        c. benzoic acid    d. nitrobenzene        (a)

6. Nitromethane condenses with acetaldehyde to give
a. nito propane        b. 1 – nitro – 2 – propanol        c. 2 – nitro – 1- propanol
d. 3 – nitro propanol                                            (b)

7. which of the following compounds has the smell of bitter almonds?
a. aniline     b. nitro methane    c. benzene sulphonic acid    d. nitrobenzene        (d)


8. Nitration of nitrobenzene results in
a. o – dinitro benzene     b. 1,3,5 – trinitro benzene        c. p – dinitro benzene
d. m – dinitro benzene                                        (d)

9. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction is con.sulphuric acid, the intermediate formed is

a. C6H5NH -  NHC6H5        b. C6H5 – NHOH        c.  C6H5 – N = N - C6H5
d.C6H5HSO4                                                (b)

Electrophile used in the nitration of benzene is
a. hydronium ion    b. sulphonic acid    c. nitronium ion    d. bromide ion        (c)









The reduction of CH3 – CH2 – C = N with sodium and alcohol results in the formation of
a. CH3 – CH – CH3            b. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH + N2

         NH2

c. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2        d. CH3 – CH2 – NH2                        (c)

12. The basic character of amines is due to the
   a. tetrahedral structure        b. presence of nitrogen atom    
c. lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom    d. high electronegativity of nitrogen        (c)

13. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine rection is

a. (C2H5)2NH        b. C2H5NH2        c. (C2H5)3N        d. (C2H5)4N+I-            (b)


14.  Primary amine acts as
a. Electrophile    b. Lewis base    c. Lewis acid        d.Free radical             (b)

15. Oxidation of aniline with acidified potassium dichromate gives
a. p – benzo quinone        b. benzoic acid    c. benzaldehyde    d. benzyl alcohol    (a)    

16. Which one of the following is a secondary amine ?
a. aniline        b. diphenyl amine      c. sec.butylamine    d. tert .butylamine        (b)




17. C6H5NH2         X. Identify X

a. C6H5Cl        b. C6H5NHOH    c. C6H5N2Cl        d. C6H5OH            (c)


18. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation?
a. m- toluidine        b. aniline        c. p-amino phenol    d. benzyl amine        (d)

19. Aniline differs from ethylamine by the reaction with
a. metallic sodium        b. an alkyl halide
c. chloroform and caustic potash        d. nitrous acid                    (d)

20. When aqueous solution of benzene  diazonium chloride is boiled the product formed is
a. benzyl alcohol    b. benzene + N2    c. phenol    d. phenyl hydroxylamine        (c)

21. In nitroalkanes, -NO2 , group is converted to –NH2, group by the reaction with
a. Sn/HCl        b. Zn dust        c. Zn / NH4Cl        d. Zn/NaOH            (a)





22. What is the product formed when nitrobenzene is reduced with Zn and aqueous NaOH?
a. Hydrazobenzene      b. Azoxybenzene      c. Aniline           d. Nitrobenzene            (a)


23. The basic character amines is due to the ____
a. presence of nitrogen atom        b. tetrahedral structure
c. lone pair of electron on the nitrogen atom    d. high electro negativity of nitrogen    (c)    


24. The foul smell of carbylamines reaction is due to the formation of ____
a. alkyl cyanide        b. alkyl isocyanide        c. alkyl isocynate    
d. alkyl cyanate                                            (b)


25. An organic compound C7H9N answers carbylamine reaction but produces primary alcohol  with nitrous acid.  The compound may be

a. aniline         b. benzylamine    c. o - toluidine    d. p - toluidine        (b)    



26. Aniline forms Schiff’s base with ____

a. benzyl alcohol        b. benzal chloride        c. benzaldehyde
d. acetic anhydride                                            (c)




27.C6H5NH2               X, Identify X ________



a. C6H5N2Cl        b. C6H5Cl        c. C6H5NHOH    d. C6H5OH            (a)

28.The reagent is used for the conversion of benzene diazonium chloride into nitrobenzene__

a. copper powder        b. HBF4        c. NaNO2    d.all the above        (d)

29. Benzene diazonium chloride can be converted into iodobenzene by boiling it with ___

a. CuCl2/HI        b. I2        c. CH3I        d. KI                    (d)







21. BIOMOLECULES

1. Which is a mono saccharide among the following
a. Sucrose    b. Cellulose        c. Maltose        d. Glucose            (d)

2. Identify the reducing sugar
a. Sucrose    b. Cellulose        c. Starch        d. Glucose            (d)

3. Sucrose is not
a. a di saccharide        b. a non – reducing sugar
c. hydrolysed to only glucose        d. hydrolysed to glucose & fructose        (c)

4. Sucrose contains glucose and fructose linked by
a.C1  - C1        b. C1  - C2        c. C1  - C2        d. C1  - C2            (b)

5. Glucose  is not oxidized to gluconic acid by
a. Br2/H2O        b. Fehling solution    c. Tollen’s reagent        d. Conc. HNO3    (a)

6. Inversion of sucrose refers to
a. oxidation of sucrose                    b. reduction of sucrose
c. hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose    d. polymerization of sucrose    (c)

7. Glucose forms _____ will acetic anhydride and sodium acetate
a. di acetate        b. tetra acetate    c. penta acetate    d. hexa acetate        (c)

8. The amino acid without chiral carbon is
a. Glysine        b. Alanine        c. Proline        d. Thyrosine            (a)

9. The building block of proteins are
a. . Ñ - hydroxy acids    b.  Ñ  -amino acids    c. Ò - hydroxy acids    d. Ò - amino acids     (b)

10. Which is not  true of amino acid?
a. amino acid forms Zwitter ion            b. has isoelectric point
c. dual behaviours            d. amino acid is insoluble in NaOH solution        (d)

11. Two amino acids say A, B – react to give
a. two dipeptides    b. three dipeptides        c. four dipeptides     d. only one         (d)

12. A di peptide does not have
a. two peptide units    b. portions of two amino acids    c. an amido group
d. salt like structure                                        (a)


13. Proteins are not sensitive to
a. acids    b. bases        c. elevated temperature     d. water            (d)





14. Denaturation does not invlove
breaking up of H – bonding in proteins     
b. the loss of biological action of enzyme
c, the loss of secondary structure            
d. the loss of primary structure of proteins                            (b)


15. Specificity of enzyme is due to
the sequence of amino acids
secondary structure
tertiary  structure
all of the above                                            (d)

16.  Ultimate products of hydrolysis of proteins is
a. aniline        b. aliphatic acid        c. amino acid        d. aromatic acid    (c)

17. Proteins are
a. polypeptides        b. poly acids        c. poly phenols        d. poly esters        (a)

18.which of the following contains a lipid?
a. starch         b. mineral oil        c. edible oil        d. peptide            (c)

Primary structure of proteins refer to
a. amino acid present            b. the shape of protein molecule
c. the peptide bond            d. the sequence of amino acid                (d)

Important constituent of cell wall is
a. lipid        b. cellulose        c. protein         d. vitamin                (b)






















22.  CHEMISTRY IN ACTION

1. The substance capable of absorbing blue light from the visible radiation would appear _____
a. yellow        b. yellow – green        c. red        d. blue            (b)

2. The unsaturated group(s) present in an organic compound is/are called ______
a. chromogens        b. auxochromes        c. no specific name        
d. chromophores                                            (d)

If an auxochrome does not affect the colour of the chromogen, it should be present in the ____position relative to chromophore
a. para             b. meta        c. ortho        d. same            (b)


4. In the compound, O2 N – C6H4 – N = N – C6H4- N (CH3)2, the chromophore  is
a. – NO2        b. – N = N –         c. – NO2 and – N = N –    d. – N (CH3)2        (b)


5. Diazonium salts give coupling reactions with
a. alcohol    b.aromatic amines        c. all amines        d. amines and phenols    (b)

6. Direct dyes are most suitable for fibres which can form
a. coordinate bonds    b. adsorption layer    c. hydrogen bonds    d. dispersed layer        (c)

7. For a dye containing sulphonic acid, the suitable mordant is ____
a. tannin    b.Sodium acetate                     c.cellulose      d.metallic hydroxide        (b)


8.  Substances which bring the body temperature down to normal temperature are known as _

a. antipyretics        b. analgesics            c. antibiotics        d. none    (b)

9. The compound which acts both as antipyretic as well as analgesic is ______
a. phenacetin    b.sulpha drugs    c. paracetamol    d. aspirin            (b)
                                
10.  A 1% solution of phenol is a _____
a. antiseptic        b.disinfectant        c. anti malarial drug        d. antihistamine    (b)

11. The medicine used for curing rabies is called _____
a. antibacterial        b.antiviral        c. antifungal        c. antibiotics        (b)

Amatol is a mixture of ___
a. TNT and AN        b. TNT and CAN    c. Toluene and AN        d. BHC and AN    (a)

Valcanising is the process of heating rubber with ______
a. phosphorus        b. Nitrogen        c. sulphur        d. peroxide compound    (c)



Thiokol is a copolymer of _______
a. Isobutylene and Butadiene        b. Butadiene and chloroprene
c. Ethylene dichloride    and Sodium Tetra sulphide        d. Butadiene and styrene        (c)

High altitude aircraft components are made from
a. buna N – rubber         b. Natural rubber     c. thiokol    d. Neoprene            (a)    

The drug used to cure bronchitis is ____
a. Aspirin        b. Sulpha drugs        c. Pencillin        d. Paracetamol    (c)

Nylon  is prepared from _____
a.    Ethylene Glycol and adipic acid        
b.    Hexa methylene diamine and phthalic acid
c.    Ethylene Glycol and Nitric acid
d.    Adipic acid and Hexamethylene diamine                        (d)

The stabilizer mixed with ether is ____
a. Ethyl chloride    b. N2O        c. propyl halide    d. chloroform                (c)

Quinine is obtained from bark of ______
a.madder plant         b. cinchona        c. indigo    d. wood sorrel        (b)

_____ is used for preserving the colourless fruits like apple, litchi, mango, chutney and lemon squashes
a. Sodium benzoate        b. potassium sulphate        c. Potassium meta – bi sulphate
d. Vinegar                                                (c)





















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